1. Consider the following :
1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
2. staphylococcus aureus
3. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Which of the above organisms is/are most
commonly associated with late onset
nosocomial pneumonia ?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 2 only
d. 1 and 3 only
2. Digoxin is contraindicated in
a. Atrial fibrillation
b. Congestive cardiac failure
c. Supraventricular tachycardia
d. Hypertrophic cordiomyopathy
3. Consider the following :
1. meningitis
2. Osler’s nodes
3. Roth’s spots in fundi
4. Mycotic aneurysm
Which of the above is/are immune
complex lesion() in infective endocarditis?
a. 1, 2 and 3 only
b. 3 and 4 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 2 only
4. In a patient with cirrhosis of liver, which
one of the following electrolyte
disturbances is likely to precipitate hepatic
encephalopathy ?
a. Hypokalemia
b. Hypophosphatemia
c. Hyponatremia
d. Hypocalcemia
5. Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below
the lists :
List-I (Drug)
A. Quinidine
B. Lidocaine
C. Amiodarone
D. Beta blockers
List-II (Side Effects)
1. Hypothyroidism
2. Cardiac failure
3. Prolonged QTc
4. Seizures
A B C D
a. 3 1 4 2
b. 3 4 1 2
c. 2 1 4 3
d. 2 4 1 3
6. Consider the following with reference to
tuberculoid leprosy :
1. Predilection for the face and ears
2. Palpable and thickened nerves
3. Risk of developing erythema nodosum
leprosum
4. Positive Lepromin test
Which of the above are the characteristic
features of Tuberculoid leprosy ?
a. 1 and 3 only
b. 2 and 4 only
c. 1, 2 and 3 only
d. 2 , 3 and 4 only
7. Various disease- modifying agents used
for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis
include the following except
a. TNF neutralizing agents
b. methotrexate
c. glucocorticoids
d. leflonomide
8. As regards diabetes mellitus, which one of
the following statements is not correct ?
a. Lactic acidosis is more likely to occur
in obese diabetics on acarbose therapy
b. Ketone bodies test in urine may
continue to be positive for few days
even when there are no other features
of ketoacidosis.
c. Hyperosmolar coma is more common
is obese elderly diabetics
d. Sudden drop in the requirement of
insulim in a pregnant diabetic may
indicate foetal death
9. As regards poliomyelitis, consider the
following statements :
1. Poliomyelitis is caused by RNA virus
of Enterovirus group.
2. Humans are the only known natural
host of this virus.
3. Virus spreads in the central nervous
system through cerebrospinal fluid.
4. Fulminating elevation of blood
pressure may occurs in bulbar polio.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct ?
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1, 2 and 4 only
d. 2 only
10. Which one of the following is not used is
acute asthma ?
a. Ipratropium bromide
b. Montelukast
c. Solbutamol
d. Theophylline
11. Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below
the lists :
List-I
(Organism Causing meningitis)
A. Neisseria meningitides
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Pseudomonos aeruginose
D. Listeria monocytogenes
List-II
(Preferred Antibiotic)
1. Ampicillin + Gentamycin
2. Ceftazidime
3. Nafcillin
4. Ceftriaxone
A B C D
a. 1 3 2 4
b. 1 2 3 4
c. 4 2 3 1
d. 4 3 2 1
12. Helicobacter pylori infection in a patient
with peptic disease can be treated with the
following agents except
a. Amaxycillin
b. Clindamycin
c. Calrithromycin
d. Metronidazole
13. with reference to schizophrenia, consider
the following
1. Genetic susceptibility
2. Early developmental insults
3. Increasing parental age
4. Social discrimination
Which of the above constitute(s) risk
factors for schizophrenia ?
a. 1, 3 and 4 only
b. 1 , 2 and 3 only
c. 3 and 4 only
d. 1 only
14. LeVeen shunt is used for the treatment of
a. Portal hypertension
b. Ascites
c. Budd – Chiari syndrome
d. Pleural effusion
15. A patient has expanding haematoma of the
spleen following an injury. What is the
grade of splenic injury ?
a. Grade II
b. Grade III
c. Grade IV
d. Grade V
16. Union of simple, uncomplicated transverse
fracture of tibia takes place in
a. 4 weeks
b. 8weeks
c. 12 weeks
d. 24 weeks
17. The most common site for gastric
carcinoma is
a. Cardia
b. Antrum
c. Body
d. pylorus
18. Which one of the following is not a feature
of early gastric carcinoma ?
a. Mucosal involvement
b. Submucosal involvement
c. Dysplasia with carcinoma in situ
d. Muscularis propria involvement
19. Regarding amoebic liver abscesses, which
one of the following statemtns is not
correct ?
a. They typically have marked
inflammatory reaction at their margins
b. They are sometimes filled with
chocolate colored, pasty material
c. Secondary bacterial infection may
make these abscesses purulent
d. They are seen in about 40% of patients
with amoebic dysentery
20. With reference to hepatitis A, which one
of the following statements is correct ?
a. The virus can be isolated from stool
only after the appearance of jaundice
b. The virus can be isolated from stool
before the appearance of jaundice
c. The virus isolation is not possible form
stool during illness
3 of 11
d. The virus isolation is possible from
stool throughout the course of illness.
21. Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below
the Lists :
List-I
(Pathogen)
A. Neisseria
B. Plasmodium
C. Vibrio
D. Salmonella
List-II
(Media used for cultivation)
1. SS agar
2. Chocolate agar
3. RPMI
4. Alkaline peptone water
5. Boeck and Drbohlav’s medium
A B C D
a. 1 3 4 2
b. 2 3 4 1
c. 2 5 3 1
d. 1 5 3 2
22. Relapse of malaria by Plasmodium vivax
is due to the reactivation of addition al
developmental form within hepatocytes
known as
a. hypnozoite
b. sporozoite
c. tachyzoite
d. microgametocyte
23. With reference to Salmonella food
poisoning, which one of the following
statements is not correct ?
a. Symptoms begin within three hours of
eating contaminated food
b. Salmonella enteritidis is a common
aetiological agent
c. Poultry is the common source of
infection
d. Diagnosis is usually made by isolation
of the bacteria from stool specimen
24. The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
mainly attacks
a. CD4 and T lymphocytes
b. CD8 T lymphocytes
c. B lymphocytes
d. NK cells
25. The progressive pulmonary tuberculosis
may spread through the following ways
except
a. Blood vessels
b. Bronchial airways
c. Lymphatics
d. Pulmonary nerves
26. Which one of the following is the most
popular medium for the rapid diagnosis of
Mycobacterium tuberculosis ?
a. Loeffler’s serum medium
b. NIH medium
c. Middlebrook medium
d. Castaneda’s medium
27. Which one of the following is not a major
biological effect of complement ?
a. Hypersensitivity
b. Opsonization
c. Phagocytosis
d. Cytolysis
28. Which one of the serum cardiac
biomarkers is useful for the diagnosis of
acute MI on the 4th day of chest pain ?
a. Creatine phosphokinase
b. Lactic dehydrogenase
c. Cardiac specific troponins
d. Myoglobin
29. Consider the following tumours :
1. Retinoblastoma
2. Neuroblastoma
3. Wilms’ tumour
Which of the above is/are associated with
autosomal dominant inheritance ?
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
30. Which one of the following is not caused
by Epstein –Barr virus ?
a. Infectious mononucleosis
b. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
c. Burkitt’s lymphoma
d. Retinoblastoma
31. Consider the following :
1. Neutrophils
2. Lymphocytes
3. Red blood cells
4. Parenchyma cell debris
Purulent exudates is rich in which of the
above ?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 4 only
c. 1, 2 and 3 only
d. 2, 3 and 4 only
4 of 11
32. Which of the following mediators of
inflammation is elaborated by platelets ?
a. Serotonin
b. Lysozyme
c. Nitric oxide
d. cytokine
33. Septic shock is usually caused by
a. gram – positive bacteria
b. gram – negative bacteria
c. fungi
d. virus
34. Central venous pressure is raised in
a. Haemorrhagic shock
b. cardiogenic shock
c. vasovagal attack shock
d. Anaphylactic shock
35. What is the earliest effect of strangulation
in bowel ?
a. Oedema of the bowel wall
b. Venous obstruction
c. Capillary rupture and haemorrhagic
infiltration
d. Intramural thrombosis
36. In patients with benign hypertrophy of
prostate symptoms due to detrusor
instability include the following except
a. dribbling
b. frequency
c. nocturia
d. urgency
37. Consider the following :
1. Bilirubin
2. Glycine
3. Succinyl CoA
Which of the above are the starting
substances for heme biosynthesis ?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1 and 3 only
38. With reference to bile acids, consider the
following statements :
1. conjugation of bile acids takes place in
peroxisomes.
2. In humans, the ratio of glycine to
taurine conjugates is normally 1 : 3.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct ?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
39. Rifampicin inhibits transcription of DNA
to RNA by
a. Altering RNA polymerase
b. Incorporating into the 3 end of mRNA
c. Preventing the addition of 3 –poly A
tail to mRNA
d. Intercalating between two GC pairs of
DNA
40. With reference to protein synthesis in
eukaryotes, which one of the following is
not stop codon ?
a. AUG
b. UGA
c. UAA
d. UAG
41. In the absence of bile salts in the intestinal
tract, the percentage of ingested lipids thah
are lost in faces is up to
a. 40%
b. 50%
c. 60%
d. 70%
42. With reference to heme synthesis, consider
the following statements:
1. ALA synthase is the rate – controlling
enzyme in porphyrin biosynthesis in
mammalian liver.
2. synthesis of ALA occurs I
peroxisomes.
Which of the statemtns given above is/are
correct ?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
43. Renal acidification test for distal tubular
functions is unnecessary if the early
morning sample of urine has one of the
following pH
a. 6.3
b. 6.0
c. 5.6
d. 5.3
44. Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the code give below
the Lists :
List-I
(Tonicity of Tabular Fluid)
A. Hypotonic
B. Isotonic
C. Hypertonic
5 of 11
List-II
(Part of Nephron)
1. Proximal convoluted tubule
2. Thick ascending limb of loop of Henle
3. collecting duct
A B C
a. 2 1 3
b. 2 3 1
c. 3 1 2
d. 1 2 3
45. If one of the cardiac ventricles becomes
hypertrophied, it will depolarize
a. Before the other ventricle
b. After the other ventricle
c. More forcefully than the other
ventricle
d. With electrical properties identical to
those of the other ventricle
46. Which of the following
stimulate/stimulates the early growth of
the primary follicle up to the antral stage ?
a. Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
b. Luteinizing hormone(LH)
c. Both FSH and estrogen
d. Both LH and estrogen
47. Consider the following stages in the
context of the development of lung ?
1. Pseudoglandular
2. Canalicular
3. Saccular
4. Alveolar
What is the correct sequence of the
successive stages of the above in he
development of lung ?
a. 1 - 2 - 3 - 4
b. 2 - 3 - 4 - 1
c. 3 - 4 - 1 - 2
d. 4 - 1 - 2 - 3
48. Notochord is represented in the adult
human vertebral column as
a. Vertebral bodies
b. Annulus fibrosus of intervertebral
discs
c. Anterior longitudinal ligament
d. Nucleus pulposus of intervertebral
discs
49. Thyroid follicles may be lined by the
following except
a. Squamous cells
b. Low cuboidal cells
c. Columnar cells
d. pseudostratified cells
50. Which of the following paired muscles
form the aponeurosis of the soft palate ?
a. Tensor veli palatine
b. Levator veli palatine
c. Palatopharyngeus
d. Salpingopharyngeus
51. Discriminative vision is a function of
a. Rods
b. Optic disc
c. Cones
d. Macula lutea
52. Which one of the following levels of
prevention can be applied during
prepathogenesis ?
a. Disability limitation
b. Health promotion and specific
protection
c. Rehabilitation
d. Early diagnosis and treatment
53. Among the following, the milk of which
one contains highest amount of calcium
(mg per 100 g of milk) ?
a. Buffalos milk
b. Cow’s milk
c. Goat’s milk
d. Mother’s breastfeed (Human)
54. Which one of the following statements is
not correct regarding Depot Medroxy
Progesterone Acetate (DMPA)?
a. It suppresses ovulation
b. It is given as an intramuscular injection
of 150 mg every three months
c. It suppresses lactation
d. It shows high degree of efficiency as a
contraceptive
55. Consider the following statements:
Under RNTCP, category II includes
1. sputum smear positive – who relapse
2. sputum smear positive – who fail to
respond
3. sputum smear positive – who default
Which of the statements given above are
correct ?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 2 and 3 only
56. The vector of Bancroftian filariasis
normally breeds in
a. polluted water
6 of 11
b. slow-moving streams
c. overhead tanks
d. water-holding containers
57. Assertion (A) : In transverse section,
microscopically the bronchus presents a
completely circular lumen and not
flattened on one side as in trachea.
Reason (R) : The musculature of a
bronchus is arranged in two spirals –
oriented circularly.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
58. Assertion (A) : Mayer’s waves are slow
regular oscillations in arterial pressure and
occur 2-3 / min during hypertension.
Reason (R) : Hypoxic stimulus causing
chemoreceptor discharge may contribute
to the production of Mayer’s waves.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
59. Assertion (A) : Austin flint murmur is a
mid-diastolic murmur.
Reason (R) : Mid-diastolic murmur is due
to mitral stenosis.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
60. Assertion (A) : X-ray crystallography of
amyloid fibrils shows a characteristic cross
β–pleated sheet configuration.
Reason (R) : Binding of ‘P’ substance to
the amyloid fibrils gives a characteristic
appearance.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
61. Assertion (A) : Pigment gallstones are a
mixture of conjugated bilirubin an
insoluble bile salts.
Reason (R) : Infection of biliary tract
releases β–glucuronidases and increases
unconjugated bilirubin.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
62. Assertion (A) : Bitemporal hemianopia
occurs as a result of injury to optic tract.
Reason (R) : Optic tract consists of
ipsilateral temporal fibres and contralateral
nasal fibres from the retina.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
63. Assertion (A) : It is difficult to prove the
temporal relationship between cause and
effect in chronic diseases.
Reason (R) : Slow onset and lack of
knowledge on precise induction period
make it hard to establish the temporal
sequence in chronic diseases.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
64. Assertion (A) : In India, mothers with HIV
infection should breastfeed their babies
and weaning should be done after four
months.
Reason (R) : The benefits of breastfeeding
by HIV positive mothers far outweigh the
risk of HIV infection in babies.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
65. Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below
the Lists :
List-I
(Haemoglobin Type)
A. HbA
B. HbA2
C. HbF
List-II
(Polypeptide Chain Type)
1. α2β2
2. α2δ2
3. α2γ2
A B C
a. 3 2 1
b. 1 3 2
c. 2 3 1
d. 1 2 3
66. With reference to biosynthesis of bile
acids, consider the following statements :
1. The enzyme 7α-hyroxylase requires
Cytochrome P450 for its action.
2. Vitamin C deficiency interferes with
bile acid formation at the 7α-
hydroxylation step.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct ?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
67. Consider the following statements :
The ovulation occurs during the
1. diminishing estrogen secretion after an
initial increase
2. beginning of progesterone secretion
3. increase in FSH level
Which of the statemtns given above is/are
correct ?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
68. Which one of the following is considered
as degeneracy of genetic code ?
a. A single codon stands for multiple
amino acids
b. One amino acid id represented by
multiple codons
c. Some condo cause mutation
d. Base pairs are altered in bacterial when
cultured for prolonged duration
69. How may ATP molecules are synthesized
for teach molecule of glucose during its
oxidation under anaerobic conditions ?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 16
d. 38
70. The major site of airway resistance during
breathing is
a. oropharynx
b. trachea
c. intermediate sized bronchi
d. alveoli
71. Which one of the following ions is
essential for absorption of glucose ?
a. Chloride
b. Potassium
c. Calcium
d. Sodium
72. What is the upper limit of concentrated
haemoglobin in the cell fluid of RBC ?
a. 24 g/dl
b. 28g/dl
c. 34g/dl
d. 42 g/dl
73. The total body iron of a 70 kg adult is
about
a. 8⋅5 g
b. 7⋅2g
c. 6⋅5g
d. 4⋅2 g
74. Which one of the following is not a feature
in Protein Energy Malnutrition ?
a. Decrease in plasma homocysteine
b. Decrease in serum vitamin A
c. Decreased subcutaneous fat
d. Reduced T-cell mediated immunity
75. Consider the following :
1. Glucose-insulin infusion
2. calcium gluconate infusion
3. β2-Adrenergic agonists (like
salbutamol)
4. Spironolactone
Which of the above constitute emergency
treatment of hyper-kalemia in a patient
with acute renal failure ?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1, 2 and 3 only
c. 3 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
76. Which one of the following is the drug of
choice for the control of seizures in
eclampsia ?
a. Clonazepam
b. Sodium valproate
c. Phenytoin sodium
d. Magnesium sulphate
77. Theophylline clearance is decreased in the
following except
a. Concurrent use of erythromycin
b. Febrile illness
c. Acute and chronic liver disease
d. Smoking
78. Consider the following :
1. Intravenous Lorazepam
2. intravenous Phenytoin
3. Intravenous Mannitol
4. Intravenous phenobarbital
Which of the above is/are used to control
the status epilepticus ?
a. 1, 2 and 3 only
b. 3 and 4 only
c. 2 only
d. 1, 2 and 4 only
79. Which one of the following antibodies is
pathognomonic of SLE ?
a. Antibody to double-stranded DNA
b. Antibody to single-stranded DNA
c. Antibody to nucleolar antigen and
haematoxylin bodies
d. Antibody to histones and LE cell
80. With reference to meningococcal
meningitis, consider the following
statements :
1. It is often preceded by diarrhea.
2. some patients with fulminant type
develop purpura fulminans
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct ?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
81. Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below
the Lists:
List-I(Organism)
A. Vibrio cholerae
B. Salmonella typhi
C. Hepatitis C virus
D. Hepatitis B virus
List-II(Incubation period)
1. One and a half to two months
2. Two to six months
3. One to five days
4. Ten to fourteen days
A B C D
a. 3 4 1 2
b. 3 1 4 2
c. 2 4 1 3
d. 2 1 4 3
82. Consider the following statements :
1. Excess fluoride in drinking water is
removed by treatment with magnesium
sulphate.
2. As per the guidelines given by WHO,
the recommended maximum limit of
concentration of fluoride in drinking
water is 2⋅5 mg/litre.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct ?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
83. Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below
the lists :
List-I(Carcinogen)
A. Asbestos
B. Benzidine
C. Aflatoxin B1
List-II(Tumour)
1. Hepatocellular carcinoma
2. Mesothelioma
3. Carcinoma bladder
A B C
a. 2 3 1
b. 3 1 2
c. 2 1 3
d. 3 2 1
84. Consider the following statements :
1. In India, nutritional marasmus occurs
more frequently than Kwashiorkar.
2. Xerophthalmia is often associated with
Protein Energy Malnutrition (PEM).
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
9 of 11
85. A highly sensitive Screening Test will give
a high proportion of
a. False positives
b. True positives
c. False negatives
d. True negatives
86. With reference to malignancy, consider the
following statements :
1. Cancers grow by progressive
infiltration and destruction of the
surrounding tissue.
2. a malignant tumour is always
aneuploid.
3. Lack of differentiation or anaplasia is
considered a hallmark of malignancy.
Which of the statemtns given above are
correct ?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
87. The deficiency of which one of the
following elements is associated with
growth depression, sexual immaturity, skin
lesions, change of taste acuity and
decreased immuno-competence?
a. Cobalt
b. Copper
c. Selenium
d. Zinc
88. The concept of Comprehensive Health
Care in India was first enunciated by
a. Bhore committee
b. Kartar Singh committee
c. Mudaliar committee
d. Srivastava committee
89. Which one among the following diseases
has the shortest incubation period ?
a. Diphtheria
b. Measles
c. Tetanus
d. Pertussis
90. In ICD-10, which one of the following
codes has been kept reserved for use in
research ?
a. U 00-U 49
b. U 50-U 99
c. R 00-r 49
d. R 50-r 99
91. Regarding National Rural Health Mission,
consider the following statements :
1. At least 50% members of the village
Health and Sanitation committee
should be woman.
2. Every such committee is entitled to an
annual untied grant of Rs. 25, 000 to
be used for carrying out its activities.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct ?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
92. What is the average increase in crown to
heel measurement in a normal Indian body
during the first year ?
a. 9 cm
b. 12 cm
c. 25 cm
d. 40 cm
93. Which one of the following is an important
quantitative method of health
management?
a. Systems analysis
b. Organizational design study
c. Personnel management
d. Management by objectives
94. Consider the following interventions of
health management :
1. Establishment of RTI/STD clinics.
2. Special package for urban slums and
tribal areas.
3. Uniform services at all districts.
4. Adolescent health
Which of the above are under RCH
programme ?
a. 1, 2 and 3 only
b. 1, 2 and 4 only
c. 2, 3 and 4 only
d. 1 and 4 only
95. The following arteries supply the internal
capsule except
a. anterior choroidal
b. middle cerebral
c. anterior cerebral
d. posterior cerebral
96. Broad ligament of uterus contains the
following except
a. Vaginal artery
b. Uterine artery
c. Fallopian tube
d. Ovarian artery
10 of 11
97. The following features characterize the
veins draining the brain except
a. Thick wall
b. Absence of values
c. Located in subarachnoid space
d. Drain into dural venous sinuses
98. Consider the following :
1. The right gastric vessels
2. The left gastric vessels
3. The left gastroepiploic vessels
The lesser omentum attached to the lesser
curvature of the stomach contains which of
the above ?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1 and 3 only
99. With reference to the posterior relations of
the kidneys, consider the following :
1. IIioinguinal nerve
2. Diaphragm
3. Subcostal vessels and nerve
4. IIiohypogastric nerve
What is the correct sequence of the above
from above towards down ?
a. 1 – 4 – 3 – 2
b. 2 – 3 – 4 – 1
c. 1 – 3 – 4 – 2
d. 2 – 4 – 3 – 1
100. Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below
the lists :
List-I
(Fibre Type in cerebrum)
A. Association fibres
B. Commissural fibres
C. Projection fibres
List-II
(Name of Fibre Bundle)
1. Internal capsule
2. Corpus callosum
3. Cingulum
A B C
a. 2 3 1
b. 3 2 1
c. 1 2 3
d. 3 1 2
101. The following are mossy fibres reaching
the cerebellar cortex except
a. vestibulocerebellar
b. olivocerebellar
c. cuneocerebellar
d. spinocerebellar
102. With which one of the following is nucleus
ambiguus not associated ?
a. Glossopharyngeal
b. Vagus
c. Accessory
d. Hypoglossal
103. What is the viable period of mature ovum?
a. 12 to 24 hours
b. 24 to 48 hours
c. 48 to 72 hours
d. More than 72 hours
104. Which one among the following regions
has the largest representation in the
sensorimotor cortex ?
a. Abdomen
b. Thorax
c. Hand
d. Leg
105. Medial geniculate body sends acoustic
radiations to which one of the following
cortical areas ?
a. 38
b. 41
c. 44
d. 52
106. The dorsal horn of spinal cord contains the
following except
a. substantia gelatinosa
b. nucleus proprius
c. clarke’s column
d. intermediomedial cell column
107. The blood supply to the outer segment of
the photoreceptors in the eye is by
a. choriocapillaries
b. central artery of retina
c. circulus arteriosus major
d. cilioretinal artery
108. Match List-I with List-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below
the Lists :
List-I(Muscle)
A. Cricothyroid
B. Lateral cricoarytenoid
C. Posterior cricoarytenoid
D. Thyroarytenoid
List-II (Action)
1. Tensor
2. Abductor
3. Adductor
11 of 11
4. Relaxer
A B C D
a. 4 3 2 1
b. 1 2 3 4
c. 4 2 3 1
d. 1 3 2 4
109. What is the surgery of choice for
carcinoma caecum ?
a. Right hemicolectomy
b. Extended right hemicolectomy
c. Total caecectomy
d. Limited right hemicolectomy
110. Which one of the following is not a
staging for carcinoma colon ?
a. Asther –Coller
b. Nerin
c. Dukes
d. TNM
111. What is the most common neoplasm of
appendix ?
a. Lymphoma
b. Adenocarcinoma
c. Leiomyosarcoma
d. Carcinoid
112. Ochsner-Sherren regimen of conservative
treatment is indicated in
a. Acute peritonitis due to perforated
duodenal ulcer
b. Acute emphysematous cholecystitis
c. Acute appendicitis with appendicular
mass
d. Acute pancreatitis with parenchymal
necrosis
113. Which one of the following statements
regarding lumbar sympathectomy is not
correct ?
a. It is an extraperitoneal procedure
b. Sympathetic chain lies in front of
lumbar veins
c. 2nd, 3rd and 4th lumbar ganglia are
excised
d. Removal and L 1 ganglion on both
sides lead to ejaculatory disturbances
114. Metabolic disturbances that occur in
patients with gastric outlet obstruction due
to peptic ulcer include the following
except
a. hyperchloremic metabolic alkalosis
b. hypernatraemia due to tubular
Reabsorption of sodium (Na+)
c. Paradoxical aciduria
d. Lowering of ionized calcium in blood
115. A 30-year old lady developed respiratory
distress due to wound haematoma after
thyroidectomy in the first postoperative
night. The management of choice would
be
a. Determination of serum calcium
concentration
b. Immediate opening of wound
c. Administration of Oxygen by nasal
cannula
d. Insertion of an orotracheal tube
116. Trendelenburg’s sign is used in the
diagnosis of
a. Varicose veins
b. Congenital dislocation of hip
c. Carcinoma stomach
d. Hydatid disease
117. What is the surgical procedure for
operable carcinoma of head of pancreas ?
a. Frey’s procedure
b. Total pancreatectomy
c. Pancreato-duodenectomy (Whipple’s)
d. Peustow procedure
118. Consider the following :
1. Bleomycin
2. Cisplantinum
3. Mitomycin C
Which of the above anti-cancer drugs
is/are used in the treatment of gastric
cancer ?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
119. Carcinoma prostate is most frequent in
which part of prostate ?
a. Central
b. Transition zone
c. Peripheral
d. No specific region
120. Which one of the following is not a risk
factor for carcinoma of stomach ?
a. H.pylori
b. Large gastric polyp
c. NSAID usage
d. Atrophic gastritis
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