1. The heart chamber that presses on
esophagus when enlarged is
a. Right atrium
b. Left atrium
c. Right ventricle
d. Left ventricle
2. Consider the following structures :
1. Stomach
2. Diaphragm
3. Left kidney
Which of these structures are related to
visceral surface of spleen ?
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3
c. 2 only
d. 1 and 3
3. Which one of the following structures is
NOT related to posterior surface of
kidney?
a. Quadratus lumborum
b. Transversus abdominis
c. Genitofemoral nerve
d. Subcostal nerve and vessels
4. Consider the following :
1. renal artery
2. Renal vein
3. Ureter
What is the correct sequence of these
structures at the hilum of kidney from
anterior to posterior ?
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 3, 1, 2
c. 2, 3, 1
d. 2, 1, 3
5. Which one of the following pairs is NOT
correctly matched ?
a. Fundus of uterus : Superficial inguinal
lymph nodes
b. Endomdetrium : uterine glands
c. Isthmus : Lower uterine segment
d. Myometrium : Striated muscle fibres
6. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer :
List I (Part of Thalamus)
A. Anterior pole
B. Superior surface
C. Posterior pole
D. Lateral surface
List II (Related to)
1. brachium of superior colliculus
2. Posterior limb of internal capsule
3. Lateral geniculate body
4. Interventricular foramen
5. Fornix
A B C D
a. 2 5 3 4
b. 4 5 1 2
c. 5 4 1 2
d. 4 5 3 1
7. Purkinkje’s fibres from the cerebellum end
in
a. extrapyramidal system
b. Cranial nerve nuclei
c. Cerebellar nuclei
d. Cerebral cortex
8. The cranial nerve that takes long
intracranial course in
a. Trigeminal nerve
b. Trochlear
c. Vagus
d. Abducent
9. Which one of the following structures of
vertebral column develops from
notochord?
a. Vertebral body
b. Vertebral arch
c. Annulus fibrosus
d. Nucleus pulposes
10. Secretomotor fibres to parotid gland are
carried by
a. Glossopharyngeal nerve
b. Facial nerve
c. Trigeminal nerve
d. Vagus nerve
11. Regarding the parafollicular cells of the
thyroid gland, which one of the following
statements is NOT correct ?
a. They may be found within the
interfollicular connective tissue
b. When found within the follicle, they
are wedge-shaped
c. They are generally larger than the
principal cells
d. They have a darker staining cytoplasm
than principal cells
12. In an axial (horizontal) MRI section of the
brain, the thalamus is seen
a. Medial to anterior limb of internal
capsule
b. Lateral to anterior limb of internal
capsule
c. Medial to posterior limb of internal
capsule
d. Lateral to posterior limb of internal
capsule
13. Consider the following statements :
Laryngeal cartilages develop from
mesenchyme of
1. second pharyngeal arch
2. fourth pharyngeal arch
3. sixth pharyngeal arch
Which of these statements are correct ?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3
14. Match List I with List II select the correct
answer :
List I (Regions of mouth and pharynx)
A. Oral cavity
B. Oropharynx
C. Nasopharynx
D. Laryngopharynx
List (structures present in them)
1. Circumvallate papilla
2. Tubal ridge
3. Pyriform recess
4. Palatine tonsils
5. Vocal folds
A B C D
a. 2 3 1 5
b. 1 3 2 5
c. 1 4 2 3
d. 2 4 1 3
15. Canaliculi of the bone tissue are occupied
by
a. Sensory nerves
b. Branches to arteries from Haversian
canal
c. cytoplasmic processes of osteocytes
d. osteoclasts
16. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer :
List I (Brain lobe)
A. Frontal lobe
B. Parietal lobe
C. Temporal lobe
D. Occipital lobe
List II(Gyrus)
1. Pecentral gyrus
2. Postcentral gyrus
3. Transverse temporal
4. Cuneus
5. Cingulate gyrus
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 2 1 5 3
c. 1 2 5 3
d. 2 1 3 4
17. Which one of the following does NOT
increase the venous return to the heart ?
a. Sympathetic stimulation
b. Negative intra-thoracic pressure
c. Parasympathetic stimulation
d. Skeletal muscle pumping
18. Which one of the following hormones
exerts little or no control over the
endomdetrium of the uterus in its
Proliferative phase, but during its secretory
phase is directly responsible for the
changes that occur ?
a. Estrogen
b. Follicle stimulation hormone
c. Luteinizing hormone
d. Progesteron
19. Consider the following information about
the on-going very rapid movement from
the peripheral parts of the body :
1. Rate of movement
2. position of different body parts
3. Direction of movement of body parts
4. Rapidity of the movement
Which of these parameters are considered
by vestibule cerebellum to calculate the
next sequence of movements ?
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 1 and 2
d. 3 and 4
20. The lateral Semicircular canal in the
Vestibular Apparatus becomes horizontal
with respect to the surface of earth, when
the head is bent forwards by an angle of
a. 15 o
b. 30 o
c. 45 o
d. 60o
21. The left ventricular muscle does more
work than the right ventricular because the
left ventricular
a. Systolic pressure is greater
b. Stroke volume is greater
c. End diastolic volume is greater
d. Venous return is lesser
22. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer :
List I(Laboratory test)
A. Galactose tolerance test
B. Serum bilirubin level
C. Prothrombin time
D. Serum GGT level
List II (Indication of )
1. Obstructive liver disease(Cholestasis)
2. synthetic function of liver
3. Metabolic capacity of liver
4. Paracrine function of liver
5. Excretory function of liver
A B C D
a. 3 5 4 1
b. 5 1 2 4
c. 5 1 3 4
d. 3 5 2 1
23. Consider the following parameters of
movements :
1. Sequence of motor patterns
2. Change in the timing of sequences
3. scaling of intensity
4. Saccadic eye movement
Which of these are controlled by basal
ganglia ?
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1 and 4
24. Which one of the following statements
expresses the fundamental characteristic of
2. 3 DPG (2, 3 di-phosphoglycerate) ?
a. 2, 3 DPG levels are reduced in
anaemia
b. Its combination with reduced
haemoglobin increases the affinity of
haemoglobin for oxygen
c. A lack of 2, 3 DPG as in stored blood
reduces the affinity of haemoglobin for
oxygen
d. 2, 3 DPG is a metabolic product of
glucose breakdown in the R.B.C.
25. The fats enter the lymphatic circulation of
small intestine as
a. free fatty acids
b. monoglycerides
c. diglycerides
d. chylomicrons
26. Na+ − K+ ATPase content in nephrons is
highest in epithelial cells of
a. Proximal convoluted tubule
b. Descending limb of loop of Henle
c. Thick ascending limb of loop of Henle
d. Collecting ducts
27. Drug, amorbarbital acts on
a. Citric acid cycle
b. Oxidative phosphorylation
c. Glycolysis
d. Mitochondrial cell wall
28. Type I glomus cells of carotid body have
K+ channels whose conductance is reduced
in proportion to the reduction in
a. 2 Po
b. 2 Pco
c. H+
d. Temperature
29. The globin chain in haemoglobin that
persists from the gestation period to
adhulhood, without decline in is
proportion is
a. γ-chain
b. α-chain
c. δ-chain
d. β-chain
30. Occlusion of both carotid arteries between
the heart and carotid sinuses would be
expected to produce
a. Increased arterial pressure
b. Decreased heart rate
c. Decreased activity of vasomotor centre
d. Decreased venous tone
31. At a heart rate of 80/minute, coronary
artery blood flow is greatest
a. Shortly after the second heart sound is
heard
b. Shortly after the A-V valves close
c. During the peak of left ventricular
ejection
d. Immediately after the aortic value
opens
32. Which ionic currents (I) are involve in
vagus-induced alteration of pacemaker
potential ?
a. INa and ICl
b. INa and IK
c. ICa and IK
d. ICa and INa
33. Consider the following events leading to
puberty changes in males
1. Testestorone secretion
2. Release of Gonadotrophins
3. Release of GnRH
4. Maturation of hypothalamus
What is the proper sequence of these
events ?
a. 3, 4, 2, 1
b. 4, 3, 1, 2
c. 4, 3, 2, 1
d. 3, 4, 1, 2
34. The type of inhibition seen in cerebellum
is
a. Pre-synaptic inhibition
b. Post-synaptic inhibition
c. Renshaw-cell inhibition
d. Fee forward inhibition
35. Sensation evoked by impulses generated in
a receptor depends upon
a. type of the stimulus
b. shape of the action potential
c. ionic component of action potential
d. part of the brain activated
36. Impaired microbial killing in Chediak-
Higashi disease is due to
a. Myelo peroxidase deficiency
b. NADH oxidase deficiency
c. No phagolysosom formation
d. G6PD deficiency
37. The cell damage in acute inflammation is
mostly due to
a. prostaglandins
b. leukotrienes
c. cytokines
d. nitroc oxide
38. Which one of the following tumors is not
associated with Human Papilloma Virus ?
a. Burkitt’s lymphoma
b. Cancer of cervix
c. Epidermodysplasia verruciformis
d. Papillomas on skin
39. Which among the following is the most
potent carcinogen in chemical
oncogenesis?
a. Azo dyes
b. Nitrosamines
c. Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons
d. Direct acting alkylating agents
40. consider the following tumors :
1. Colonic carcinoma
2. Carcinoma stomach
3. Hepatocellular carcinoma
4. Carcinoma pancreas
Which of these produce carcinoid
syndrome as a systemic manifestation ?
a. 1, 2 and 4
b. 2 and 4
c. 2 and 3
d. 1, 3 and 4
5 of 12
41. Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation is
common in which one of the following
Leukemias ?
a. Acute myelocytic leukemia
b. Acute promyelocytic leukemia
c. Chronic lymphatic leukemia
d. Chronic myeloid leukemia
42. Which of the following factors is involved
in the pathogenesis of stable angina
pectoris ?
a. Sudden spasm of coronary artery
b. Platelet thrombi over the
atherosclerotic plaque
c. Rupture of atherosclerotic plaque
d. Chronic stenosing coronary
atherosclerosis
43. Pyuria with sterile urine culture is
typically seen in
a. Renal tuberculosis
b. Hydronephrosis
c. Chronic glomerulonephritis
d. Chronic pyelonephritis
44. Which of the following cells react
immunologically without prior
sensitization ?
a. Cytotoxic T. lymphocytes
b. Natural Killer cells
c. Langerhan’s cells
d. Macrophages
45. Bactericidal function of eosinophils is due
to
a. Histamine
b. Lactoferrin
c. Major basic Protein
d. Transferrin
46. Consider the following statements : the
characteristics of Acquired
Immunodeficiency Syndrome are
1. primary HIV inducted ‘T’ cell
deficiency
2. secondary ‘B’ cell dysfunction
3. poly-clonal hypergammaglobulinemia
4. Increased production of Interleukin 2.
Which of these statements are correct ?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2 and 3
c. 2 and 4
d. 1, 3 and 4
47. C.S.F. Chloride is decreased in
a. Chronic alcoholism
b. General paralysis of insane
c. Pyogenic meningitis
d. Tubercular meningitis
48. Consider the following biochemical
reactions
1. Utilization of citrate
2. Glucose fermentation
3. Decarboxylation of ornithine
4. Dulcitol fermentation
Which of these differentiate S. typhi from
other species of Salmonella ?
a. 1, 2 and 4
b. 2 and 3
c. 2 an 4
d. 1, 3 and 4
49. Consider the following statements :
The characters that differentiate El Tor
vibrio from typical Vibrio Cholerae are
1. Choleragen production
2. Resistant to cholera phage IV and
polymyxin B
3. Mannitol fermentation
4. Production of soluble haemoglobin
Which of these statements are correct ?
a. 1, 2 and 4
b. 2 and 3
c. 2 and 4
d. 1, 3 and 4
50. The fulminant form of meningococcemia
is called
a. Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome
b. Addison’s disease
c. Sheehan’s Syndrome
d. Waterhouse-Friderichsen Syndrome
51. The bodies seen on microscopic
examination of liver in viral hepatitis are
a. Aschoff bodies
b. Councilman’s bodies
c. L. D. bodies
d. Mallory’s bodies
52. Consider the following :
1. Lung
2. Heart
6 of 12
3. Liver
4. kidney
In which of these organs are the extra
intestinal lesions of Entamoeba usually
manifest ?
a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
53. Which one of the following is NOT a
pathological finding in central nervous
system in falciparum malaria ?
a. Ring haemorrhages
b. Visceral tide
c. Durck’s glial node
d. Lepto meningitis
54. Regarding Ascaris, which one of the
following statements is NOT correct ?
a. In male Ascaris, the posterior end is
curved
b. The ova of Ascaris are covered by
mammilated albuminous envelope
c. The fertilized ova of Ascaris passed in
the faeces are infective
d. The embryos of the intact eggs of
Ascaris, after being swallowed, can not
be harmed by gastric juice
55. Which on of the following statements
regarding chicken pox is NOT correct ?
a. Chicken pox is caused by Human
herpes Virus – 3
b. Its communicability ranges from 1 to 2
days before the onset of rash and 4 to 5
days thereafter
c. Its incubation period is 3 to 5 days
d. The virus can cross the placental
barrier and infect the foetus
56. Rosigilatazone used in the treatment of
diabetes mellitus
a. Is a insulin secretogogue
b. Is a α– glucosidase inhibitor
c. Acts like sulphonylurea
d. Is a PPAR – receptor activator
57. HLA B27 is NOT a marker for
a. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
b. Ankylosing spondylitis
c. Reactive arthritis
d. Psoriatic spondylitis
58. A 40 year old male has hypopigmented
macular lesions and palpable enlarged
ulnar nerve. The diagnosis of Leprosy can
best be established by
a. A positive Lepromin skin test
b. Culture of skin biopsy material
c. Erythema and swelling of lesion after a
trail of Dapsone therapy
d. Acid-fast organism in skin or nerves
59. Which one of the following is NOT a
typical feature of duodenal ulcer ?
a. Pain relieved by eating
b. Nausea and retrostenal pain relieved by
belching
c. Nocturnal pain causing frequent night
waking
d. Pain-free remissions lasting many
weeks
60. Which one of the following features is
associated with high mortality in
community Acquired Pneumonia ?
a. Patient age 30 to 50 years
b. Pco2 < 40 mm of Hg
c. Total WBC count of < 4000 × 109/litre
d. Lower lobe involvement on chest
radiograph
61. Digoxin is contra-indicated in
a. Atrial fibrillation
b. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
c. Congestive cardiac failure
d. Supre-ventricular tachycardia
62. Consider the following statements :
Hypokalemia with metabolic acidosis is
typically seen in
1. Type I renal tubular acidosis
2. type II renal tubular acidosis
3. type IV renal tubular acidosis
Which of these statements are correct ?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 3
63. Sudden death is most common in
a. Complete heart block
b. Atrial fibrillation
c. Ventricular fibrillation
7 of 12
d. Pericardial tamponade
64. Which one of the following is NOT the
feature of lateral medullary syndrome?
a. IX and X cranial nerve involvement
b. Sympathetic tract involvement
c. Loss of contra lateral pain and
temperature sensation over trunk
d. Hypoglossal nerve involvement
65. Which one of the following conditions is
NOT a manifestation of raised intracranial
tension ?
a. Bradycardia
b. Coma
c. Convulsions
d. Loss of vibration sense
66. Consider the following statements :
Ascites in cirrhosis of liver
1. occurs due to portal hypertension alone
2. is associated with secondary
Hyperaldosteronism
3. is a feature of hepato-cellular failure.
Which of these statements are correct ?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 1 and 2
67. With reference to rheumatoid arthritis,
consider the following statements :
1. Atlanto-axial dislocation may occur
and may produce compressive
myelopathy
2. Subcutaneous nodules may develop in
20 to 25% of patients during the course
of the disease
3. Intrapulmonary nodules may occur and
they may rupture to produce
pneumothorax.
4. phenylbutazone may cause pedal
oedema
Which of these statemtns are correct ?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
68. Consider the following :
1. Respiratory acidosis
2. Respiratory alkalosis
3. Metabolic acidosis
4. Metabolic alkalosis
The sequence of changes in status
asthamaticus are
a. 1, 2, 3, 4
b. 2, 1, 3, 4
c. 1, 2, 4, 3
d. 2, 1, 4, 3
69. With reference to status epilepticus, which
one the statements is NOT correct ?
a. Status is never the presenting feature
of idiopathic epilepsy
b. The most common causes of status
epilepticus are drug non-compliance,
metabolic disturbances and CNS
infections
c. Prolonged epileptic seizures lead to
irreversible neuronal injury after
approximately two hours
d. The duration of seizure activity to meet
the definition of status epilepticus has
traditionally been specified 35 to 45
minutes
70. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer :
List I (Murmurs)
A. Carey-Coombs
B. Austin-Flint
C. Graham-Steell
D. Seagull
List II (Disease state)
1. Aortic incompetence
2. Pulmonary hypertension
3. Ruptured chordae tendinae
4. Rheumatic carditis
A B C D
a. 4 1 2 3
b. 1 4 3 2
c. 1 4 2 3
d. 4 1 3 2
71. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer .
List I (Pulmonary Lesion)
A. Cavitary lesion
B. Eosinophilic pneumonia
C. Hilar Lymphadenopathy
D. Adult respiratory distress
8 of 12
List II(Causative factor)
1. acute pancreatitis
2. Staphylococcal pneumonia
3. Nitrofurantoin
4. Sarcoidosis
A B C D
a. 1 3 4 2
b. 2 3 4 1
c. 1 4 3 2
d. 2 4 3 1
72. Consider the following statements,
regarding diabetic ketoacidosis :
1. In diabetic ketoacidosis, both sodium
and potassium deficits of > 400 m mol
are found.
2. Peripheral blood leukocytosis is a
characteristic finding of diabetic
ketoacidosis.
Which of these statemtns is/are correct ?
a. 1 only
b. Both 1 and 2
c. 2 only
d. Neither 1 nor 2
73. Retro-peritoneal injury is best evaluated by
a. X-Ray abdomen
b. CT scan
c. USG abdomen
d. Peritoneal lavage
74. Consider the following statements :
1. 10% of patients with chronic atrophic
gastritis develop cancer over 1 15 year
period.
2. Type B gastritis occurs with greatest
frequency in those areas of the world
with highest incidence of gastric
cancer.
3. The type B gastritis occurs in the
incisura, antrum and body of stomach.
Which of these statemtns are correct ?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 3
75. The correct option for the treatment of
fracture lower third of femur is
a. Internal fixation of fracture segments
b. fixed traction in Thomas’ splint
c. Reduction of fracture and application
of plaster cylinder
d. Above knee amputation
76. Which one of the following statements
regarding fracture neck femur is NOT
correct ?
a. Anterioposterior and lateral views XRay
are diagnostic
b. The leg is internally rotated
c. Garden classification divides the
fracture into four grades
d. A very common fracture in the elderly
Osteoporotic patients
77. Metformin, an oral hypoglycemic drug,
should always be stopped because of
preoperative risk of
a. Hypoglycemia
b. Withdrawal hyperglycemia
c. Non-ketotic hyperosmolar coma
d. Lactic acidosis
78. Abdominal compartment syndrome
manifests when pressure is
a. < 5 mm Hg
b. 5 to 10 mm Hg
c. 10 to 15 mm Hg
d. > 15 Hg
79. Medical therapy in Buerger’s disease
involves
a. Abstinence from smoking ,
antithrombotic therapy consisting of
heparin, diuretics
b. Abstinence from smoking and
administration of fibrinolytic agents
only
c. Abstinence from smoking ,
administration of fibrinolytic agents
and heparin; long term anticoagulation
therapy and prostaglandin therapy
d. Abstinence from smoking along with
antithrombotic therapy and
vasodilators
80. With reference to the Carcinoma of Lung,
which one of the following statemtns is
NOT correct ?
a. Radiation therapy continues to be a
major therapeutic modality in the
management of the carcinoma of lung
9 of 12
b. Chemotherapy is used in majority of
the patients with undifferentiated small
cell carcinoma
c. Patients with small cell tumors do not
respond to chemotherapy favourably
d. Immunotherapy is as useful as
chemotherapy for small cell carcinoma
81. Mucocele of appendix is a
a. Benign tumor
b. Low grade malignancy
c. Retention cyst
d. Infective process
82. In the TNM classification, colon
carcinoma with metastasis to nodes is
staged as
a. Stage I
b. Stage II
c. Stage III
d. Stage IV
83. Enlargement of median lobe of prostate is
diagnosed by
a. History
b. bimanual examination
c. cystoscopy
d. Rectal examination
84. In which types of cancer breast patients,
the Adjuvant Systematic Therapy is
indicated ?
a. All patients with breast cancer in situ.
b. Axillary node positive patients after
curative surgery
c. Patients with state IV disease
d. Pre-menopausal patients only
85. Inflammatory breast carcinoma is staged
as
a. T4a
b. T4b
c. T4c
d. T4d
86. The most common cause of gastric outlet
obstruction in the first one month of life is
a. Duodenal atresia
b. Pyloric atresia
c. Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
d. Duodenal diaphragms
87. A healthy infant suddenly wakes up from
sleep with abdominal pain and vomiting;
and a lump in the abdomen is discovered
on examination. The most probable
diagnosis is
a. Wilm’s tumor
b. Meckel’s diverticulitis
c. Intussusception
d. Hydronephrosis
88. Which one of the following drugs does
NOT cause retention of urine ?
a. α adrenergic blocking
b. Cholinergic
c. Antihistaminic
d. tricyclic antidepressant
89. A patient after a fall has developed claw
hand. The spinal segments likely to be
involved are
a. C4 and C5
b. C6 and C7
c. C8 and T1
d. T1 and T2
90. Roentgenogram of the chest confirms the
diagnosis of pneumothorax in majority of
the patients: but, sometimes the diagnosis
is suspected but cannot be confirmed by
routing chest X-Ray. Then one would ask
for a chest film
a. During exhalation
b. During inhalation
c. In supine position
d. In Trendelenburg’s position
91. Primary spontaneous pneumothorax occurs
as a result of
a. Mass lesion in the lung parenchyma
b. Rupture of subpleural bleb
c. Rupture of lung abscess
d. Penetrating injury of the chest wall
92. A 90% sensitivity of a screening test
means that 90% of the screened people
will be
a. True positive
b. True Negative
c. False Negatives
d. False Positives
93. The minimum amount of repeated or
continuous noise that can result in
permanent hearing loss, in decibels is
a. 80
b. 100
c. 180
d. 200
94. Which one of the following diseases does
NOT exhibit “Iceberg Phenomenon” of
disease ?
a. El Tor Cholera
b. Japanese encephalitis
c. Rabies
d. Diabetes mellitus
95. Which one of the following is NOT a
specific protection ?
a. Advice on smoking cessation
b. Measles vaccination
c. Vitamin A prophylaxis
d. Use of condoms by sex workers
96. In a small sample of 9 boys and 11 girls,
the mean cholesterol levels are found to be
250 mgm percent and 260 mgm percent
respectively. Which one of the following
Statistical tests would be most appropriate
to find the significance of difference
between the groups ?
a. Chu-square test
b. Z-test
c. P-test
d. t-test
97. After a lunch in a hostel mess, a number of
students were admitted to hospital late in
the evening with nausea, vomiting and
pain in abdomen. What was the most
likely cause of food poisoning ?
a. Salmonella
b. Staphylococcus
c. Botulism
d. Chemical
98. Consider the following :
1. Bar Chart
2. Frequency Polygon
3. Pie Chart
4. Histogram
Discrete variables can be represented by
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 4
c. 1 and 3
d. 3 and 4
99. Which one of the following indices of
obesity can be calculated by the formula
“Height (in cms.) – 100” ?
a. Broca index
b. Body mass index
c. Corpulence index
d. Ponderal index
100. A 15 year old boy presented with sudden
non-inflammatory bilateral swelling of
legs, associated with diarrhoea. The later
developed dyspnoea and cardiac failure,
and dies. The most likely diagnosis is
a. Neurolathyrism
b. Endemic ascites
c. Epidemic dropsy
d. Ergotism
101. Match List I with List Ii and select the
correct answer :
List I (Type of vaccine)
A. Live attenuated viral vaccine
B. Killed viral vaccine
C. Live attenuated bacterial vaccine
D. Killed bacterial vaccine
List II(Nature of immunizing agent)
1. B. C. G. (Tuberculosis)
2. Pertusis
3. Salk Polio-vaccine
4. measles vaccine
A B C D
a. 4 3 1 2
b. 2 3 1 4
c. 4 1 3 2
d. 2 1 3 4
102. If Gross Reproduction Rate in a
community is 1 (one), it means the
population is
a. Static
b. decreasing
c. increasing marginally increasing
rapidly
d. increasing rapidly
103. Which one of the following is NOT
consistent with the right steps to be
following in baby-friendly hospitals ?
a. Breast feeding initiation within the first
hour of birth after normal delivery
b. Advertisement or promotional material
for infant feeding should be banned
c. Exclusive breast feeding till 4 to 6
months of age
d. Encourage breast feeding every 4
hours
104. An infant aged six months will be
diagnosed to have pneumonia if the
Respiratory Rate perminute is more than
or equal to
a. 40
b. 50
c. 60
d. 80
105. In a school with 1000 students studying in
10 classes, you want to select a random
sample of 100. In this context, match list
I(Details of sampling method) with List II
(Sampling method) and select the correct
answer :
List I
A. Selecting every tenth student lined
randomly
B. Picking students from each of the
classes
C. Selecting students of randomly
selected classes
D. Selecting 100 students randomly
selected classes
List II
1. Systematic random sampling
2. stratified random sampling
3. cluster sampling
4. simple random sampling
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 1 2 4 3
c. 2 1 4 3
d. 2 1 3 4
106. What is the best and most reliable method
of contraception for a 20 year old newly
married lady student wanting to delay
pregnancy for two to three years ?
a. Copper T 200
b. Oral pill
c. Condom
d. Vaginal sponge
107. Consider the following statements :
The Indian Factories Act provides for
1. Disablement benefit
2. funeral benefit
3. Safety Officer for more than 1000
workers
4. Prohibition of employing children
below 14 years of age
Which of these statements is/are correct ?
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 3 and 4
c. 4 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
108. Assertion (A) : Psoas major and Iliacus are
the chief extensors of the Hip Joint.
Reason (R) : Psoas major and Iliacus are
inserted into the lesser Trochanter of
femur.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
109. Assertion (A) : Inflammation of
diaphragmatic pleura causes pain referred
to the shoulder tip.
Reason (R) : Diaphragmatic pleura and the
skin over the shoulder tip are supplied by
the same spinal segments.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
110. Assertion (A) : The frontal eyefield is
situated caudally in the middle frontal
gyrus.
Reason (R) : This is affected when the
anterior cerebral artery is damaged or
blocked.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
111. Assertion (A) : Ovarian metastasis-
Krukenberg tumor result from breast and
gastro-intestinal primaries.
Reason (R) : The ostium created by the
rupture of the ripe follicle of the ovary is
vulnerable to implantation of exfoliated
tumor cells.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
112. Assertion (A) : The healing of
intracapsular fracture or neck femur carries
a poor prognosis.
Reason (R) : The major source of blood
supply to femoral head is intraosseous and
through retinacular arteries.
12 of 12
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
113. Assertion (A) : Pacinian corpuscles are
easily adopted to continuous application of
pressure.
Reason (R) : Lateral displacement of
connective tissue lamellas lessen the
pressure on the nerve ending.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
114. Assertion (A) : In the control of an
epidemic of poliomyelitis, oral Polio
Vaccine is more effective than Parenteral
Polio Vaccine.
Reason (R) : Injections are to be avoided
during epidemic times as they are likely to
precipitate paralysis.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
115. Assertion (A) : Granulomas of secondary
tuberculosis most often occur in the apex
of the lungs.
Reason (R) : Secondary tuberculosis is
caused by reactivation of the primary
lesion.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
116. Assertion (A) : For surveillance purpose,
mortality data is not a useful indicator in
diseases with low fatality.
Reason (R) : Less number of deaths or no
deaths in such diseases do not reflect the
true morbidity situation.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
117. Assertion (A) : Case control study is
suitable for the analytical study of rare
diseases.
Reason (R) : In case control study, the
cause-effect association is not studied.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
118. Assertion (A) : Prinzmetal’s angina causes
ST-segment elevation in ECG.
Reason (R) : Plaque rupture with
propagated occlusive thrombus cause
Prinzmetal’s angina.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
119. Assertion (A) : Bovine albumin, a major
constituent of cow’s milk, has been
implicated in triggering Type 1 diabetes
mellitus.
Reason (R) : Bovine albumin may cross
neonatal gut and raise antibodies with
close homology to β–chain of HLA Class
II antigens and a heat shock protein
expressed by β cells and thus cause
damage to β cells.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
120. Assertion (A) : Kidneys from cirrhotic
patients with hepatorenal syndrome cannot
be used from renal transplantation.
Reason (R) : The kidneys are structurally
normal but have altered renal
hemodynamics.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
No comments:
Post a Comment