1. In lettuce, red light is most effective in
breaking seed dormancy because it
a. Stimulates water absorption
b. Reverses inhibitory effect of far-red
light
c. Enhances respiratory rate
d. Breaks down ABA
2. How many meiotic divisions are required
to produce 12 pollen grains in
Cyperaceous?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 6
d. 12
3. Which one of the following plants is being
used as a model system to study
developmental genetics of zygotic embryo
genesis?
a. Arabidopsis thaliana
b. Daucus carota
c. Zea mays
d. Capsella bursa-pastoris
4. Which one of the following pairs is NOT
correctly matched?
a. Neem : Azadirachtin
b. PEG : Protoplast fusion
c. Gybogenesis : Haploids
d. Wheat : 2-celled pollen
5. In angiosperms, which one of the
following processes does NOT involve an
unequal division?
a. Formation of microspores
b. Formation of generative cell
c. Zygotic embryogenesis
d. Helobial endosperm development
6. The male germ unit (MGU) in
angiosperms comprises of
a. Vegetative nucleus and the generative
cell
b. The two sperm cells
c. Vegetative nucleus and one of the
sperms
d. Vegetative nucleus arid the two sperms
7. Match list I with list II and select the
correct answer:
List I
A. Pollinia
B. Aril
C. Virus elimination
D. Tip growth
List II
1. Litchi
2. Pollen tube
3. Orchids
4. Meristem culture
5. Paleontology
A B C D
a. 3 2 4 5
b. 2 1 3 4
c. 4 3 5 2
d. 3 1 4 2
8. Cleistogamy is found in
a. Ficus
b. Commelina
c. Vallisnerea
d. Anthocephalus
9. When the pollen of one flower pollinates
another flower on the same plant, it is
called
a. Autogamy
b. Geitonogamy
c. Allogamy
d. Xenogamy
10. Which one of the following technique has
been widely used to overcome sexual
incompatibility?
a. In vitro fertilization
b. Geitonogamy
c. Allogamy
d. Xenogamy
11. The pollen tube discharges its contents in
a. The egg
b. One of the synergids
c. The central cell
d. One of the antipodal cells
12. Pollen tube growth is an example of
a. Geotropism
b. Chemotropism
c. Thigrnotropism
d. Heliotropism
13. Formation of callose wall occurs during
a. Embryogenesis
b. Endosperm development
c. Megasporogenesis
d. Seed germination
14. Embryo maturation is favoured by:
a. IAA
b. 2,4-D
c. BAP
d. ABA
15. The envelope of the embryonic shoot in
maize seed is called
a. Testa
b. Tegrnen
c. Scutellum
d. Coleoptile
16. Which one of the following does NOT
exhibit seed dormancy?
a. Rhizophoi
b. Xanthium
c. Phaseolus
d. Cassia
17. Aleurone is the outermost layer of
endosperm in cereals. It helps in
a. Protection of endospermic
b. Endosperm growth
c. Accumulation of reserve food in the
endosperm
d. Mobilization of reserve food in the
endosperm
18. The pollen-pistil rejection reaction in a
plant showing ametophytic selfincompatibility
usually occurs
a. On the stigma
b. In the style
c. In the ovary before entering the
embryo sac
d. During game tic fusion
19. The pertinacious substance involved in
saprophytic incompatibility and stored in
the exile is derived from
a. Tapetum
b. Microspore
c. Anther locule
d. Stigmatic papillae
20. The fluid mosaic model of cell membrane
postulates that a lipid bilayer
a. Has some embedded protein and some
proteins on the surface
b. Coated with a layer of proteins on each
surface
c. Is coated with a layer of proteins on
the outer surface only
d. Has proteins embedded in itself and
none on the surface
21. The function of Lysosome is to
a. Synthesize various cellular
macromolecules
b. Carry out digestion of all cytoplasm
components
c. Ingest material from the extravehicular
environment
d. Recycle cellular material and digest
material taken in from the environment
22. Consider the following statements:
1. In plant cells, cytokines is starts with
the formation of the phragmoplast.
2. Phragmoplast comprises interozonal
microtubules and Golgi vesicles.
3. Primary cell wall is produced by
microtubules.
Which of the above statements are correct?
a. l and 3
b. l and 2
c. 2 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3
23. Which one of the following discoveries
provided the strongest evidence for the
chromosome theory of heredity?
a. Discovery of sex chromosomes
b. Discovery of polyploidy
c. Discovery of giant chromosomes
d. Discovery of supernumerary
chromosomes
24. What is the correct sequence of stages in
Prophase I of meiosis?
a. Leptotene, Pachytene, Zygotene,
Diakinesis, Diplotene
b. Zygotene, Leptotene, Paehytene,
Diplotene, Diakinesis
c. Leptotene, Zygotene, Pachytene,
Diplotene. Diakinesis
d. Zygotene. Pachytene. Leptotene,
Diakinesis, Diplotene
25. A yellow and round seeded pea plant is
crossed with green and wrinkled seeded
pea plant and the F1 of this cross is
backcrossed to the homozygous recessive
parent. The progeny will appear in the
ratio of
a. 9:3:3:1
b. 1:1:1:1
c. 9:3:4
d. 12:3:1
26. Genetically engineered male sterile crop
plants have been produced by inserting
a. Opaque 2 gene
b. Virus coat-protein gene
c. Bamase gene
d. Chitinase gene
27. Haploids are considered better genetic
stock because they
a. Require only half of the nutrients
b. Are best for cytological studies
c. Grow better under all conditions
d. Form homozygous individuals on
depolarization
28. Ti plasmid used in genetic engineering is
obtained from
a. Bacillus thuzingiensis
b. Agrobacterium rhizogenes
c. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
d. Pseudomonas syringae
29. Consider the following steps during
recombinant DNA technology:
1. Breaking of donor DNA using
restriction enzyme
2. Culture of cloned bacteria containing
the fragment of donor DNA
3. Isolation of suitable plasmid
4. insertion of recombinant DNA through
cloning
5. Joining of donor DNA with a suitable
plasmid using ligase
The correct sequence of these is
a. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
b. 3. 2, 1, 5, 4
c. 1, 3, 5. 4, 2
d. 5, 1, 3, 4, 2
30. Terminator seeds produced by giant seed
companies using techniques of genetic
engineering are in fact
a. Hybrid seeds which germinate in the
frame’s field but do not produce seeds
in the next generation
b. Hybrid seeds which give a very high
yield
c. Seed which germinate and produce
incompatible gametes
d. Seeds that develop into fertile plants
which produce flog - terminable seeds
31. Golden rice is a transgenic crop with a trait
for
a. Pest resistance
b. High vitamin a content
c. Drought resistance
d. High protein content
32. In which one of the following
combinations, the compounds are arranged
in ascending order based on their
molecular weights?
a. DNA, RNA, AMP, ADP, ATP
b. DNA, RNA, ATP ADP AMP
c. AMP ADP ATP RNA, DNA
d. AMP ATP ADP DNA, RNA
33. The strongest evidence for DNA being the
genetic material is deduced from
a. The fact that DNA is present not only
in the nucleus but also in mitochondria
and plastids
b. The situation that chromosomes are
made up of DNA
c. The researches involving
transformation experiments in the
bacterial cells
d. The reality that DNA has the
potentiality to replicate
34. Match List I (Phenomenon) with List II
(Effects/States) and select the correct
answer:
List I
A. Crossing -over
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B. Coupling
C. Coincidence
D. Repulsion
List II
1. Cis - configuration
2. Trans - configuration
3. Recombination
4. Double cross – over
A B C D
a. 3 1 4 2
b. 4 3 1 2
c. 2 1 4 3
d. 3 4 2 1
35. In a particular plant, genes for tall (T) plan
and red (R) flowers are dominant over
dwarf (t) plant and white (r) flowers.
When a dithered of F1 was test crossed. it
produced following progenies:
Tall and Red – 44
Tall and White – 5
Dwarf and Red – 7
Dwarf and White -44
What would be the distance between genes
t and r on the basis of the data given
above?
a. 44 map units
b. 5 map units
c. 7 map units
d. 12 map units
36. The main difference between luxuriance
and heterocyst is that luxuriance is
a. An environmental phenomenon while
heterocyst is a genetic phenomenon
b. Observed in self-pollinating species
while heterocyst is obverted in crosspollinating
species
c. An evolutionary accident brought
about by complementary action of
genes while heterosis is an expression
of superior adaptation
d. Related to sterility while heterocyst is
related fertility
37. Which one of the following pairs is NOT
correctly matched?
a. inbreeding depression : Homozygosity
b. Hybrid vigour : Heterozygosity
c. Apogamy : Fertilization
d. Male sterility : Cross-pollination
38. Consider the following statements:
Apomixis is phenomenon in which
1. Fertilization occurs regularly
2. Fertilization does not occur at all
3. Embryo is formed directly from an egg
or male gamete
4. Formed embryo may be haploid or
diploid
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
a. 1 alone
b. 1 and 3
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 2, 3 arid 4
39. The most commonly used growth regulator
to induce somatic embryogeriesis is
a. BAP
b. 2,4-D
c. IAA
d. GA3
40. Which one of the following pairs is NOT
correctly matched?
a. Early blight of potato : Aalternaria
solani
b. Brown rot of potato : Pseudomonas
solanacerarum
c. Leaf spot of potato : Cercospora
concurs
d. Ring rot of potato : Phytophtora
infestans
41. The species of Tilletia responsible for hill
bunt or stinking smut of wheat are
a. Tilletia caries and T. foetida
b. Tilletia caries and T. barclayana
c. Tilletia caries and T. Foetida
d. Tilletia contraversa and T. caries
42. The foul fishy smell of a volatile chemical
trimethylamine in the disease - infested
wheat field is an indicator of
a. Rust
b. Smut
c. Blast
d. Bunt
43. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer:
List I
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A. Trichoderma
B. Systemic fungicide
C. Phyllosphere
D. False smut
List II
1. Bavistin
2. Microorganisms inhabiting leaf surface
3. Ustilaginoidea vireos
4. Mycoparasitism
A B C D
a. 3 1 2 4
b. 1 2 4 3
c. 4 1 2 3
d. 4 2 3 1
44. The main plant exported from Andhra
Pradesh Is
a. Oryza sativa
b. Coffea arabica
c. Nicotiana
d. tabacum
e. Cocos nuciefera
45. Match List I (Use) with List II (Name of
the plant) and select the correct answer:
List I
A. Fibre
B. Oil
C. Drug
D. Timber
List II
1. Swietenia macrophylla
2. Arachis hypogaea
3. Corchorus capsularis
4. Taxus baccata
5. Butea monosperma
A B C D
a. 2 4 3 1
b. 3 2 1 4
c. 3 2 4 1
d. 2 1 4 5
46. Which one of the following pairs is
correctly matched?
a. Tannia : Bixa orellana
b. Annatto : Cassia auriculata
c. indigo : 1ndigofei caerulea
d. Cochineal dye Dactypius coccus
47. From which one of the following plants,
the insecticide pyrethrum is prepared?
a. Vetiveria
b. Cymbopogon
c. Chyrysanthemum
d. Tephrosia
48. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer:
List I
A. The amount of energy accumulation in
green plants through the process of
photosynthesis
B. The total organic matter synthesized by
the producers in the process of
photosynthesis per unit time & area
C. Rate of storage of organic matter in
plant tissues in excess of the
respiratory utilization during the
measurement period
D. Rate of energy storage at consumer
level
List II
1. Gross primary productivity
2. Primary productivity
3. Secondary productivity
4. Net primary productivity
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 2 1 3 4
c. 1 3 4 2
d. 2 1 4 3
49. Which one of the following combinations
would you consider suitable for a good
commercial wood?
a. Tracheids, Vessels, collenchyma,
fibers, Medullary rays
b. Tracheids, vessels, fibers, xylem
parenchyma, medullary rays
c. Xylem parenchyma, vessels, middle
lammella, fibers collenchyma
d. Tracheids, vessels, sclerenchyma,
fivers, medullays rays
50. Match List I (Name of fibre yielding plant)
with List II (Nature/Origin of fibers) and
select the answer:
List I
A. Cotton
B. Flax
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C. Kapok
D. Coconut
List II
1. Bast fibers
2. Structural fibers
3. Surfaces fibers from seed
4. Fiberous mesocarp
5. Inner wall of fruit
A B C D
a. 4 2 5 1
b. 3 2 4 1
c. 3 1 5 4
d. 2 1 3 4
51. Petrocrops are highly promising biomass
energy sources because these crops
a. Helps to conserve soil and water
b. Are a principal source of energy in
rural areas
c. Are an essential renewable energy
source
d. Contain high amount of biocrude
chemicals
52. Phanerophytes are further classified into
following four sub-life forms depending
upon the height of mature plants:
1. Nanophanerophytes
2. Microphanerophytes
3. Megaphanerophytes
4. Mesophanerophytes
The correct sequence of these in
descending order in
a. 1,2,3,4
b. 4,2,3,1
c. 3,4,2,1
d. 3,2,1,4
53. Match List I (Vegetation areas) with List II
(Area of distribution) and select the correct
answer:
List I
A. Eastern Himalayas
B. Western Himalayas
C. Gangetic Plain
D. Malabar
List II
1. Kumaon to Kashmir
2. Sikkim to NEFA
3. Gujarat to Kanyakumari
4. UP to Bihar and Bengal
A B C D
a. 4 1 3 2
b. 4 2 1 3
c. 2 3 4 1
d. 2 1 4 2
54. Consider the following statements:
The concept of growing multipurpose trees
in Social Forestry and Agro-forestry is for
1. Food
2. Fuel
3. Fruit
4. Fodder
Which of the above statements are correct?
a. 1, 2 and 4
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 3
55. Beta (β) diversity means diversity
a. Over a large area
b. Within a site
c. Over an area consisting of many
habitats
d. Over an area consisting of single
habitat
56. Cybrids are hybrids
a. Produced by in u/tm fusion of gametes
b. With full nuclear genomes of the two
parents
c. With full nuclear genome of one and
partial nuclear enome of the other
parent
d. With nuclear genome of one and
cytoplasm genome of the other parent
57. Which of the following is NOT a freeliving
nitrogen fixing bacterium?
a. Azotobacter
b. Rhizobium
c. Clostridium
d. Azospirillum
58. Transgenic plants can act as living
bioreactors for the production of chemicals
and pharmaceuticals. This is known as
a. Agriculture farming
b. Molecular farming
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c. Phannacotechnology
d. Organic farming
59. Consider the following statements:
1. bt gene has been introduced in some
plants to provide resistance against
attack by insects.
2. Frost resistant tomato has been
developed by incorporating a gene
from polar fish.
3. Transgenic plant products are being
well received all over the world
Which of the above statements are correct?
a. 2 and 3
b. 1,2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 1 and 2
60. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer:
List I
A. Nitrogen fixation
B. Denitrification
C. Nitrification
D. Ammonification
List II
1. Conversion of NH+
4 into nitrite and
nitrate
2. Conversion of nitrite or nitrate into
atmosphere nitrogen
3. Conversion of atmospheric nitrogen
into ammonia
4. Conversion of organic nitrogen into
ammonia
A B C D
a. 3 2 1 4
b. 2 1 3 4
c. 3 2 4 1
d. 2 4 1 3
61. The diagrams given below show
population dispersion:
Which of these illustrates clumped
dispersion pattern in a Population?
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
a. 2 and 3
b. 3 and 5
c. 3 and 4
d. 1 and 5
62. One of the main causes of the silting of big
dams is
a. Deforestation in the catchments area
b. Increase in the population of wild
animals in the forests around the dam
c. Insufficient rainfall
d. Excessive evaporation of water
63. Common indicator organism of water
pollution is
a. Salmonella typhi
b. Entamoeba histytic
c. Vibrio cholerae
d. Escherichia coli
64. Which of the species given below indicate
the higher salinity level of the soil?
1. Prosopis juliflora
2. Azadirachta indica
3. Sueda fruticosa
4. Chenopodium album
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. 2 and 4
65. Assertion (A): In the leaves of
gymnosperms the ‘transfusion tissue’ is
the only conducting tissue.
Reason (R): Scarcity of veins has led to
the development of transfusion tissue in
the leaves of gymnosperms
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
66. Assertion (A): In prokaryotes,
transcription and translation occur
simultaneously, while in eukaryotes their
occurrence is temporally and spatially
separated.
Reason (R): In eukaryotes, transcription
occurs in nucleus and the encoded
message is translated in cytoplasm, but in
prokaryotes there is no demarcation
8 of 13
between cytoplasm and nudes having no
nuclear membrane.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
67. Assertion (A): Phytochrome in green
plans is different from phytochrome in
etiolated tissues.
Reason (R): The form of phytochrome
expressed in etiolated tissues is only of
five gene products.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
68. Assertion (A): Apodictic seeds of a plant
produce clonal population.
Reason (R): In apodictic plants, embryo is
formed without meiosis and fertilization.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
69. Assertion (A): Mendel did not explain the
phenomenon of linkage.
Reason (R): Factors (Genes) for all the
seven characters in garden pea considered
by Mendel were present in different
homologous chromosomes.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
70. Assertion (A): Translocation heterozygote
semisecret and are accompanied with
multivalent association.
Reason (R): The gametes formed through
alternate disjunction, are functional while
those formed by adjacent disjunction are
nonviable.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
71. Assertion (A): Frequency of crossing-over
in chromosome is directly proportional to
the distance between two genes.
Reason (R): Crossing-over at a point on a
chromosome discourages the accidence of
another crossing over in the vicinity.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
72. Assertion (A): The hypersensitive
response (HR) occurs only in specific
host-pathogen combination in which the
host and pathogen are incompatible.
Reason (R): A resistant gene (R)
recognizes and is triggered into action by
the elicitor molecules released by the
pathogen.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
73. Assertion (A): Jute fibers always occur in
long wedge - shaped bundles outside the
xylem.
Reason (R): Jute fibers always made up of
phloem cells.
a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
74. Assertion (A): Deodar is one of the most
proffered timber woods.
Reason (R): Reason (R) It is durable and
has stability, resistance to temperature,
insects and humidity.
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a. Both A and Rare true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
75. Which one of the following statements
correctly defines Convergent evolution?
a. The development of similar
characters/states in different lineages
that are related through a common
ancestry
b. The convergence of many
characters/states in descents of the
same lineage
c. The development of similar
characters/states in different lineages
that are not directly related through a
common ancestry
d. (d) The development of different
characters/states in descendants of the
same lineage
76. Gaseous mixture used by Miller for
synthesis of amino acids through heat and
electric discharge included
a. Methane, ammonia, hydrogen and
water vapours
b. Methane, ammonia, nitrogen and water
vapours
c. Methane, nitrogen, hydrogen and water
vapours
d. Ammonia, carbon dioxide, nitrogen
and water vapours
77. Speciation occurs when
a. Gene flow within the common pool is
interrupted by an isolating mechanism
b. Competition occurs between members
of two populations for resources
c. Niches of two closely related
individuals get over-lapped
d. Nutrients limit gene flow between
individuals
78. Which one of the following tissue systems
is responsible for the gritty texture of pear
fruit?
a. Macrosciereids
b. Osteosclereids
c. Brachysciereids
d. Asteroscelereids
79. Primary phloem, secondary phloem,
internal phloem and included phloem,
occur in the stem of
a. Salvadora
b. Leptadenia
c. Aristolochia
d. Nyctanthes
80. The cytoplasm bridges that interconnect
plant cells and selectively traffic
macromolecules from one cell to another
are known as
a. Microtubules
b. Middle lamella
c. Plasmodesmata
d. Phragmoplast
81. Growth in length of intimates occurs by
the activity of
a. Lateral meristem
b. Procambium
c. Intercalary meristem
d. Apical meristem
82. According to the rule of nomenclature, the
name of a species is expressed by two
words. The plants name Veronica anagallis
aquatica consists of three words. Which
one of the following expresses the name
correctly in two words?
a. Veronica anagallis-aquatica
b. Veronica anagallis and aquatica
c. Veronica (anagallis aquatica)
d. Veronica anagallisaquatica
83. If Sisymbrium murale is transferred to the
geneus Diplotaxis with the new binomial
combination. Diplotaxis muralis (Linn.)
DC, then Sisymbrium murale Linn. will be
known as
a. Homonym
b. Tautonym
c. Basionym
d. Autonym
84. Which one of the following is the most
important criterion used to classify living
organisms into three primary kingdoms,
namely — Archaea, Eubacteria and
Eukarya?
a. Genetic relatedness
b. Morphological characters
c. Physiological characters
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d. Phenotypic characters
85. The principles of which of the following
taxonomic methods are also known as neo-
Adansonian Principles?
1. Taxometrics
2. Cladistics
3. Phenetics
4. Phyletics
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 4 only
86. Centrospermae is regarded a natural order
of angiosperms. All except two of its
families contain the pigments that are
collectively called battalions. Some of the
families of the order are enumerated
below. Which two families lack betalains?
1. Amaranthaceae
2. Aizoaceae
3. Chenopodiaceae
4. Caryophyllaceae
5. Mouginaceae
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. 4 and 5
87. Match list I with List II and select the
correct answer:
List I
A. Gel electrophoreses
B. Serology
C. DNA-DNA hybridization
D. Restriction site analysis
List II
1. Annealing
2. Isozymes
3. Southern blots
4. Antiserum
5. Sequencing
A B C D
a. 5 2 1 4
b. 2 1 3 4
c. 2 4 1 3
d. 3 4 2 5
88. Proteinaceous infectious particles without
nucleation acids are known as
a. Viroids
b. Virusoids
c. Prions
d. Virions
89. Match List I (Name of genera) with List II
(Name of classes) and select the correct
answer:
List I
A. Saprolegnia
B. Claviceps
C. Agaricus
D. Fusarium
List II
1. Deuteromycetes
2. Oomycetes
3. Ascomycetes
4. Basidiomycetes
A B C D
a. 2 1 3 4
b. 2 3 4 1
c. 3 4 2 1
d. 1 3 4 2
90. A structure is lichens that is similar to
stomata in function is known as
a. Soredium
b. Isidium
c. Cyphellae
d. Cynalle
91. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer:
List I
A. Lichen
B. Fungi
C. Cyanobacteria
D. Bacteriophage
List II
1. Virus
2. Symboints
3. Decomposers
4. Flagellate
5. Blue-green algae
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A B C D
a. 2 1 4 3
b. 1 3 5 4
c. 5 2 3 1
d. 2 3 5 1
92. Which one of the following pairs is NOT
correctly matched?
a. Red Sea : Trichodesmium erytherum, a
cyanobacterium
b. Red Tides : Rhodymenia, a red algae
c. Red Snow: Chlamydomonas nivalis, a
green algae
d. Red Rust of: Cephaleuros virescens, a
green algae Tea
93. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer:
List I
A. Trabeculae of Selaginella
B. Trabeculae of Marsilea
C. Trabeculae of soetes
D. Trabeculae of Funaria
List II
1. Endodermal in nature
2. Cortical in nature
3. Sporogenous in nature
4. Amphithecia in nature
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 3 2 4 1
c. 1 3 4 2
d. 4 3 1 2
94. The capsule grows continuously due to the
presence of n intercalary meristem in
a. Marchantia
b. Polytrichum
c. Riccia
d. Anthoceros
95. Which of the following attributes pertain
to Ginkgo biloba?
1. Fan-shaped deciduous leaves with
dichotomous venation
2. Motile sperms
3. Presence of vessels in wood
4. Lack of archegonia
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
a. 1 and 3
b. 1 and 4
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 1 and 2
96. Which fossil group formed the basis of
Anthostrobilus theory of origin of
angiosperms?
a. Caytoniales
b. Cycadeoidales
c. Czekanowskiales
d. Pentoxylales
97. Which one of the following statements is
correct with respect to the synthesis of
starch and sucrose?
a. Starch is synthesized in the
mitochondria and sucrose in the
cytosol
b. Starch is synthesized in the cytoso and
sucrose in the chloroplast
c. Starch is synthesized in the chloroplast
and sucrose in the mitochondria
d. Starch is synthesized in the chloroplast
and sucrose in the cytosol
98. The phenomenon of passing of a
substantial amount of light through the
first cell layer in leaves without its
absorption is called
a. Scattering effect
b. Sieve effect
c. Refraction effect
d. Transmission effect
99. Among the following components of
chloroplast membranes, which one is the
strongest reducing agent?
a. PQH2
b. Reduce cytochrome b6
c. Reduced ferredoxin
d. NADPH2
100. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer:
List I
A. Constitutive enzymes
B. Inducible enzymes
C. Holoenzymes
D. Endoenzymes
List II
1. Hydrolyzing enzymes
12 of 13
2. Enzymes synthesized in response to
certain substrates
3. Enzymes always present in constant
amount
4. Catalytically active enzyme cofactor
complex
5. Provide nitrogen for plant growth
A B C D
a. 3 2 4 1
b. 5 3 2 1
c. 2 3 4 5
d. 3 2 1 4
101. Consider the following statements:
Photo respiratory carbon oxidation cycle
involves the cooperative interaction of
1. Chloroplast
2. Peroxisome
3. Mitochondria
4. Lysosome
Which of the above statements are correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1, 3 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 2, 3 and 4
102. The Pasteur effect refers to
a. An increase in hexokinase activity
owing to increased oxidative
phosphorylation
b. An increase in ethanol formation from
pyruvate on changing from aerobic to
anaerobic metabolism
c. An increase in glucose utilization on
changing from ‘anaerobic to aerobic
metabolism
d. A decrease in glucose utilization on
changing from anaerobic to aerobic
metabolism
103. The Mitchell or charismatic hypothesis
predicts the
a. Existence of a higher pH in the
endoplasmic reticulum than in the
cytosol
b. Symmetrical distribution of ATPase of
the inner membrane of the
mitochondria
c. Synthesis of ATP as protons flow
along a gradient across inner
mitochondrial membrane
d. Absence of ATPase in the inner
mitochondrial membrane
104. During symbiotic biological nitrogen
fixation. the recognition of rhizobiahost
interaction involves two classes of
molecules there are
a. Lectins an lipids
b. Lectins and Polysaccharides
c. Flavonoids and lipids
d. Lectins and Alkaloids
105. In the study of enzymes, a sigmoidal plot
of substrate concentration (S) versus the
reaction velocity (V) indicates
a. Michaelis - Menten kinetics
b. Cooperative binding
c. Competitive inhibition
d. Non-competitive inhibition
106. Legume root nodules contain leg
hemoglobin. Its function is to regulate
a. Expression of nif genes
b. Dinitrogenase activity
c. Oxygen supply
d. Nodule growth
107. Dinitrophenol inhibits cell function by
disrupting
a. Citric acid cycle
b. Oxidative phosphroylation
c. Glycol sis
d. Gluconeogenesis
108. Which one of the following mineral
elements does NOT appear to be
structurally bound in plants?
a. Nitrogen
b. Calcium
c. Phosphorus
d. Potassium
109. Match List I (Element) with List II
(Process) and select the correct answer:
List I
A. Molybdenum
B. Managanese
C. Sulphur
D. Calcium
List II
1. Photosynthesis
2. Respiration
3. Nitrate reduction
13 of 13
4. Cell division
5. Protein synthesis
A B C D
a. 5 2 3 1
b. 3 1 5 4
c. 2 1 4 5
d. 3 2 4 5
110. Urease is an enzyme that catalyses the
hydrolysis of urea into NH3 and CO2. The
metallic cofactor of the enzyme is
a. Ni
b. Fe
c. Mn
d. Cu
111. Some antibiotics act ionospheres , which
means that they
a. Interfere directly with bacterial cell
well synthesis
b. Increase cell membrane permeability
to specific ions
c. Inhibit both transcription and
translation
d. Inhibit electrophoresis separation of
ions
112. The disease little leaf of fruit trees is
caused by the deficiency of
a. Copper
b. Zinc
c. Manganese
d. Cobalt
113. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer:
List I
A. Field capacity
B. Permanent wilting
C. Water deficit
D. Soil moisture tension
List II
1. Forces which hold water to the soil
2. Combine effect of accelerated water
loss and retarded water absorption
3. Water content of a soil
4. Loss of water from plant with little
chance of regaining turgidity
A B C D
a. 3 4 2 1
b. 1 2 3 4
c. 2 4 3 1
d. 3 1 2 4
114. Which one of the following alterations in
DNA is likely to be lethal?
a. Substitution of adenine for cytosine
b. Substitution of methyl cytosine for
cytosine
c. Deletion of thee nucleotides
d. Insertion of one nucleotide
115. Which one of the following statements
about ribosome’s is correct?
a. They are an integral part of
transcription
b. They are found both free in the
cytoplasm and bound to membranes
c. They are composed of RNA, DNA and
protein
d. They are bound so tightly that they
cannot dissociate under physiological
conditions
116. An increased melting temperature for
duplex DNA results from a high content of
a. Adenine + guanine
b. Cytosine + thymine
c. Cytosine + guanine
d. Adenine + cytosine
117. The post-translational processing of
secretary proteins takes place in
a. Plastids
b. Golgi bodies
c. Mitochondria
d. Nucleus
118. The brief addition of a radioactive
compound to the sample reaction mixture
followed by its removal and its
replacement by an excess of unlabelled
compound during the study of a
biosynthetic pathway is called
a. Autoradiography
b. Molecular hybridization
c. Pulse - chase experiment
d. Partial sequence analysis
119. Florigen is considered to be a combination
of
a. Gibberellin and cytokinin
b. Gibberellin and anthesin
c. Cytokinnin and abscisic acid
d. Cytokinin and anthesin
120. Organs such as stolons and rhizomes,
which grow at right angles to the pull of
gravity are called to be
a. Plagiogravitropic
b. Diagravitropic
c. Agravitropic
d. Semigravitropic
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