Medical Sciences-2006

1. Which one of the following is not a
characteristic of Antinomyces Israeli ?
a. Gram positive
b. Non acid fast
c. Strict aerobe
d. Susceptible to penicillin
2. Match List-I (Markers) with list-II
(Cancers) and select the correct answer
using the code given below the lists :
List-I
A. Calcitonin
B. Alpha fetoprotein
C. Neuron specific enolase
D. CA125
List-II
1. Ovarian cancer
2. Medullary carcinoma thyroid
3. Nonseminomatous germ cell tumour of
testis
4. small cell carcinoma lung
A B C D
a. 2 4 3 1
b. 2 3 4 1
c. 1 3 4 2
d. 1 4 3 2
3. Consider the following statements :
1. Hepatitis-A virus is double-stranded
DNA virus, whereas Hepatitis-B virus
is a single stranded RNA virus.
2. Hepatitis-E virus is an enterically
transmitted waterborne infection.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct ?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
4. What is the sequence of appearance of
serological markers in acute Hepatitis-B
virus infection ?
a. HBV-DNA, HBsAg, IgM-anti HBc,
Anti-HBs
b. HBsAg, IgM-anti HBc, HBV-DNA
c. HBsAg, HBV-DNA , Anti-HBs, IgManti
HBc
d. HBsAg, HBV-DNA, IgM-anti HBc,
IgG-anti HBs
5. A 48-year old man presented with chest
pain of six hours duration. His ECG
revealed ST elevation more than 5 mm in
Leads I, aVL and V1—V3. The most likely
diagnosis is :
a. Inferior wall infraction
b. Anteroseptal infarction
c. Posterior wall infarction
d. Laterinferior wall infarction
6. Which one of the following pairs in not
correctly matched ?
a. Primary tuberculosis lung : Absence of
liquefaction
b. Fibrocaseous tuberculosis : Absence of
cavity lesions
c. Intestinal tuberculosis : Drinking of
Milk
d. Acuter military tuberculosis of lung :
Numerous tubercles
7. Consider the following antibodies :
1. Antinuclear antibodies
2. Antithyroid antibodies
3. Double stranded DNA antibodies.
Which of the above antibodies aid in the
diagnosis of Systemic Lupus
Erythematosus ?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 3 only
8. What is Rhoptry ?
a. The cyst of a protozoan which is
resistant to gastric enzymes of host.
b. A special organelle in the merozoites
of malarial parasite with releases
multiple proteases.
c. The bump formed on the surface of an
RBC due to change in its
morphological appearance cause by
malarial parasite.
d. A highly activated natural killer cell
with abundant cytoplasmic granules.
9. Which one of the following does not
constitute the drug treatment of Status
Epilepticus ?
a. Injectable Lorazepam
b. Indictable Phenytoin
c. Injectable Chlorpromazine
d. Injectable anaesthetic agents
10. A 26-year old male patient having severe
mitral regurgitation develops right middle
cerebral artery territory stroke associated
with raised intra-cranial tension. The
echocardiography reveals one cm size
vegetation over mitral valve. Which one of
the following medications is
contraindicated ?
a. I.V. Heparin
b. I.V. Mannitol
c. I.V. Furosemide
d. I.V. Digoxin
11. Following are the features of cirrhosis of
liver secondary to Haemochromatosis
except :
a. Hepatomegaly
b. Congestive heart failure
c. Premature cataract
d. Diabetes mellitus
12. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia is
characteristic feature of which one of the
following conditions ?
a. Henoch-Schonlein purpura
b. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
c. Microscopic polyangiitis
d. Infective endocarditis
13. Consider the following statements:
1. Vibrio cholerae bacteria do not invade
the gut mucosa.
2. the cysts of Entamoeba historical have
a chitin wall and four nuclei.
3. Humans are the only host of
Salmonella typhi.
Which of the statements given above are
correct ?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
14. With reference to liver, consider the
following statements :
1. In acute cholecystitis, enteric fistula
formation is seen
2. Carbohydrate antigens in schistosome
eggs induce macrophage accumulation
and granulome formation.
Which of the statements given above are
correct ?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
15. Regarding the prognosis in a patient with
schizophrenia, which one of the following
statements is correct ?
a. It does depend on symptom severity,
but on the response to antipsychotic
medication.
b. It depends on the symptom severity
and not on the response to
antipsychotic medication.
c. It depends on both the symptom
severity and response to antipsychotic
medication.
d. It is not affected by symptom severity
nor the response to antipsychotic
medication

16. Which one of the following is the best
drug inhibiting the sphincter mechanism
and relieving symptoms of benign
prostatic hypertrophy ?
a. Tamsulosin
b. Finasteride
c. Flutamide
d. Terazosin
17. Regarding carcinoma colon, which one of
the following statements is correct ?
a. Lesion on left side of the colon
presents with features of anaemia
b. Duke’s A stage should receive
adjuvant chemotherapy
c. Mucinous carcinoma colon has a good
prognosis
d. Solitary liver metastasis is not a
contraindication for surgery
18. Which of the following stages of
carcinoma breast corresponds with the
features of breasts mass 6 cm × 3 cm size
with hard mobile ipsilateral axillary lymph
node and ipsilateral supraclavicular lymph
node ?
a. T4N2M0
b. T3N1M1
c. T4N1M1
d. T3N2M0
19. A depression in skin overlying the
lumbosacral region is suggestive of :
a. Meningocele
b. Meningomyelocele
c. Spinabifida occulate
d. Syringo-myelocele
20. Which one of the following is the
procedure of choice for carcinoma of
3 of 11
descending colon in 70-year old patient
who presented with acute intestinal
obstruction ?
a. Hartmann’s procedure
b. Defunctioning colostomy
c. Total Colectomy
d. Abdominoperineal resection
21. A 70-year old man comes to casualty with
acute retention of urine. The most probable
cause would be :
a. Urethral stricture
b. Multiple sclerosis
c. Prostatic enlargement
d. Urethral calculus
22. Which one of the following is not a
clinical feature of a cervical spinal cord
injury ?
a. Hypotension and Bradycardia
b. Ability to extend the elbow
c. Sacral sparing
d. Patulous anal sphincter
23. Which one of the following is the earliest
sign of hemorrhagic shock ?
a. Tachycardia
b. Tachypnea
c. Fall in systolic blood pressure
d. Fall in diastolic blood pressure
24. A 40-year old man met with an accident
and comes to emergency department with
engorged neck veins, pallor, rapid pulse
and chest pain. The diagnosis is :
a. Pulmonary laceration
b. Cardiac tamponade
c. Splenic rupture
d. Hemothorax
25. Which one of the following may promote
streptococcal spread in to the tissue in the
event of pyoderma ?
a. Coagulase
b. Hyaluronidase
c. Leucodien
d. Haemolysin
26. Extravasation of leucocytes in acute
inflammation involves which one of the
following sequences of steps in
succession?
a. Rolling, margination, adhesion and
diapedesis
b. Diapedesis, margination, rolling and
adhesion
c. Margination, rolling, adhesion and
diapedesis
d. Pavementing, rolling, margination and
diapedesis
27. Consider the following microorganisms :
1. Clostridium perfringes
2. Entamoeba histolytica
3. Herpesvirus
4. Leishmania tropica
Which of the above produce necrotizing
inflammation ?
a. 1 and 2, only
b. 1, 2 and 3, only
c. 3 and 4, only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
28. Which of the following may provide the
first line of defense against tumour cells ?
a. CD4 +ve cytotoxic-T lymphocytes
b. Natural killer cells
c. Macrophages
d. Antibodies
29. Consider the following malignancies :
1. Burkitt’s lymphoma
2. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
3. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
4. Adult T-cell leukemia
Epstein-Barr virus is associated in the
pathogenesis of which of the above
malignancies ?
a. 1 and 2, only
b. 1, 2 and 3, only
c. 2, 3 and 4, only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
30. In food poisoning due to Salmonella, the
bacteria can not be isolated form which
only of the following specimens ?
a. Stool
b. Vomitus
c. Infected food
d. Blood
31. Consider the following organs :

1. Thyroid

2. Urinary bladder

3. Ovary Prostate

Carcinomas of which of the above organs

spread through paravertebral plexus ?

a. 1, 2 and 3

b. 1 and 4

c. 2, 3 and 4

d. 3 and 4 only

32. Which one of the following statements

regarding meningococcal vaccines is

correct ?

a. Vaccine against groups A,C,Y and W-

135 is used for prophylaxis.

b. Vaccine is highly effective in children

less than two years of age.

c. Vaccine against group B is given

during outbreaks.

d. Cell wall outer membrane proteins are

the major constituents of the vaccine.

33. Consider the following :

1. Hypercalcemia

2. cushing’s syndrome

3. Polycythemia

4. Hyperglycemia

Which of the above are endocrinal

manifestations in paraneoplastic

syndrome?

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 1 and 4

c. 1 , 2 and 3

d. 2, 3 and 4

34. The source of an epidemic which attains a

sharp peak, within a short time, but tails

off gradually over a longer period of time

will be :

a. Propagated source

b. Common source-single exposure

c. Common source-repeated exposure

d. Common source to begin with and then

continued as a propagated epidemic

35. Consider the following statements :

Chicken pox can be transmitted by

1. trasplacental route

2. contact

3. droplet infection

4. water

Which of the above is/are the

source/sources of Cadmium pollution ?

a. 2 only

b. 1, 2 and 3 only

c. 1, 2, 3 and 4

d. 1 and 3 only

36. Consider the following :

1. Steel industry

2. Waste incineration

3. Cigarette smoke

4. diffused fertilizer in soil

Which of the above is/are the

source/sources of Cadmium pollution ?

a. 1 and 2 only

b. 1, 2 and 3 only

c. 1, 2, 3 and 4

d. 4 only

37. At present, the most important factor for

the rise in global incidence of Tuberculosis

is :

a. Multiple drug resistance

b. Non-compliance (defaulters)

c. HIV infection

d. Failure to follow DOTS

38. Which one of the following sexually

transmitted diseases is not responsible for

increasing the chances of getting HIV

infection ?

a. Syphilis

b. Cancroid

c. Trichomonas vaginalis

d. Lymphogranuloma venereum

39. Modified Leprosy Elimination Campaign

in high endemicity areas focuses on the

following except :

a. Orientation training to health staff and

volunteers

b. Increase of public awareness

c. Active search for cases

d. Starting of survey, education and

treatment centres.

40. Consider the following stages in the

development of Lymphatic Filariasis :

1. Asymptomatic microfilaraemia

2. Asymptomatic amicrofilaraemia

3. chronic obstructive lesions

4. Stage of acute manifestations

The correct sequence of the above stages

is:

a. 1, 2, 3, 4

b. 2, 1, 4, 3

c. 4, 2, 1, 3

d. 2, 3, 1, 4

41. Cross infection in hospitals can be

prevented by adopting the following

measures in a hospital except :

a. Bed spacing

b. Barrier nursing

c. Concurrent disinfection

d. Specific immunisation

42. Which on of the following is the correct

sequence of enzymes required in DNA

replication ?

a. Helicase, topoisomerase, DNA

polymerase, DNA ligase

b. DNA polymerase, DNA ligase,

topoisomerase, helicase

c. Helicase, DNA polymerase,

topoisomerase, DNA ligase

d. DNA polymerase, helicase, DNA

ligase, topoisomerase

43. Relative risk of disease is estimated by :

a. Addition of incidence among exposed

and incidence among non-exposed

b. Multiplying of incidence among

exposed and incidence among nonexposed

c. Dividing incidence among exposed by

incidence among non-exposed

d. Subtracting incidence among nonexposed

from incidence among

exposed.

44. Which one of the following can not be

achieved by cross sectional study ?

a. Study of the magnitude of the problem

with in a short time

b. Calculation of the prevalence rate

c. Study of the natural history of a

disease

d. Planning quick intervention

45. By randomisation, the investigator

a. Controls the selection of right sample

size

b. Attempts to eliminate selection bias

c. Matches known important variables

d. Attempts to eliminate observer bias



46. Consider the following statements :
Genetic Code is :
1. overlapping
2. degenerate
3. unambiguous
4. universal
Which of the statement given above are
correct ?
a. 2 and 3 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2, 3 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
47. In case of normoblasts, the condensation
reaction of Succinyl CoA and glycine to
form delta-amino levulinic acid
a. Cytoplasm
b. Mitochondria
c. Microsome
d. Nucleus
48. Hexose monophosphate shunt has great
importance in cellular metabolism because
it produces :
a. NADH + H+
b. NADPH + H+
c. FMNH2
d. FADH2
49. The palatine tonsil is supplied by :
a. Facial nerve
b. Glossopharyngeal nerve
c. Cranial accessory nerve
d. Vagus nerve
50. The following structures from the stomach
bed except :
a. Splenic artery
b. Pancreas
c. Superior mesenteric vein
d. Left kidney
51. The following are the branches of splenic
artery except :
a. Pancreatic
b. Left gastroepiploic
c. Short gastric
d. Right gastroepiploic
52. The chief source of blood supply to the
sinoatrial node is from :
a. The right coronary artery
b. Anterior interventricular branch of left
coronary artery
c. Posterior interventricular branch of
right coronary artery
d. The circumflex branch of left coronary
artery
53. With reference to cardiac base, consider
the following statements :
1. It faces the back and to the right.
2. It is formed by the right atrium and the
right ventricle.
3. It lies opposite the sixth to ninth
thoracic vertebra in erect posture.
Which of the statements given above are
correct ?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
54. Cervix uteri is drained by the following
lymph nodes except :
a. External iliac
b. Internal iliac
c. Sacral
d. Superficial inguinal
55. Consider the following statements :
The fibre components of inferior cerebellar
peduncle are
6 of 11
1. dorsal spinocerebellar
2. olivocerebellar
3. ventral spinocerebellar
Which of the statements given above are
correct ?
a. 1 and 2, only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3, only
d. 1, 2 and 3
56. Match List-I(Damage/paralysis) with List-
II (Effect/symptom) and select the correct
answer using the code given below the
lists :
List-I
A. Damage to auriculotemporal nerve
B. Damage to cervical sympathetic nerve
C. Facial nerve paralysis
D. Trochlear nerve paralysis
List-II
1. Flattening of nasolabial fold
2. Ptosis
3. Diplopia
4. Dryness of mouth
A B C D
a. 3 1 2 4
b. 4 1 2 3
c. 3 2 1 4
d. 4 2 1 3
57. The Oculomotor nerve supplies the
following extraocular muscles except :
a. Superior rectus
b. Inferior rectus
c. Superior oblique
d. Inferior oblique
58. The blood-testis barrier is formed by :
a. Interstitial cells of Leydig
b. Myofibroblasts
c. Sertoli cells
d. Peritubular myoid cells
59. The following fibres pass through the
posterior limb of internal capsule except :
a. Frontopontine
b. Anterior thalamic radiation
c. Corticospinal
d. Corticorubral
60. Assertion (A) : In Kwashiorkor, adequate
carbohydrate intake aggravates
hypoalbuminemia.
Reason (R) : Insulin secretion in response
to carbohydrate intake favours movement
of amino acids into the muscles rather than
the liver for protein synthesis.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
61. Assertion (A) : In liver disorder the

coagulation time is increased.

Reason (R) : The prothrombin synthesis is

increased in liver disorders..

a. Both A and R are individually true and

R is the correct explanation of A

b. Both A and R are individually true but

R is not the correct explanation of A

c. A is true but R is false

d. A is false but R is true

62. Assertion (A) : Ca2+ channel antagonists

are used in the treatment of congestive

heart failure.

Reason (R) : Ca2+ channel antagonists

diminish the strength of cardiac

contraction..

a. Both A and R are individually true and

R is the correct explanation of A

b. Both A and R are individually true but

R is not the correct explanation of A

c. A is true but R is false

d. A is false but R is true

63. Assertion (A) : hepatitis-D virus infection

can develop only when there is

concomitant Hepatitis-B virus infection.

Reason (R) : Hepatitis-D virus is a small,

defective RNA virus that can replicated

and cause infection only when

encapsulated by HBs Ag.

a. Both A and R are individually true and

R is the correct explanation of A

b. Both A and R are individually true but

R is not the correct explanation of A

c. A is true but R is false

d. A is false but R is true

64. Assertion (A) : Intrinsic laryngeal muscles

are innervated by branches of the vagus

nerve.

Reason (R) : Musculature of larynx

develops from the mesenchyme of fourth

and sixth pharyngeal.

a. Both A and R are individually true and

R is the correct explanation of A

7 of 11

b. Both A and R are individually true but

R is not the correct explanation of A

c. A is true but R is false

d. A is false but R is true

65. Assertion (A) : Avascular necrosis of head

of femur occurs in intracapsular fracture of

the neck of femur.

Reason (R) : Blood supply of the head of

femur is by arteries passing along the

ligament of head of femur.

a. Both A and R are individually true and

R is the correct explanation of A

b. Both A and R are individually true but

R is not the correct explanation of A

c. A is true but R is false

d. A is false but R is true

66. Assertion (A) : Haemetemesis in chronic

duodenal ulcer usually occurs from a

posterior ulcer.

Reason (R) : posterior ulcer erodes right

gastric artery.

a. Both A and R are individually true and

R is the correct explanation of A

b. Both A and R are individually true but

R is not the correct explanation of A

c. A is true but R is false

d. A is false but R is true

67. When a completely unimmunized child

appears of the first time for immunization

at the age of nine months, what should be

given ?

a. Measles vaccine and the first

megadose of Vitamin A

b. BCG, DPT and measles vaccines at the

same time

c. BCG, DPT, measles and Polio

vaccines should be given at seven to

ten days intervals

d. BCG, DPT measles and Polio vaccines

should be given at seven to ten days

intervals

68. Anaemia, which is severe and unyielding

to the treatment may be a presenting

feature of :

a. Carcinoma of sigmoid colon

b. Carcinoma of transverse colon

c. Carcinoma of descending colon

d. Carcinoma of ascending colon

69. Which one of the following sclerosing

agent sis usually used for endoscopic

sclerotherapy of esophageal varices ?

a. 5% phenol in almond oil

b. Hypertonic saline

c. Bleomycin

d. 5% ethanolamine oleate

70. In benign enlargement of prostate, the

most common lobe involved is :

a. Posterior

b. Lateral

c. Median

d. Anterior

71. Consider the following :

1. Incidence rate

2. Attack rate

3. Point prevalence

4. Period prevalence

Which of the above are used for measuring

the rate of occurrence of disease

(frequency) ?

a. 1 and 2

b. 2 and 3

c. 3 and 4

d. 1 and 4

72. Which one of the following is called

benign pneumoconiosis ?

a. Asbestosis

b. Silicosis

c. Siderosis

d. Coal worker’s pneumoconiosis


73. Consider the following statements :

The advantage of disinfection of water

with ultraviolet irradiation are that it :

1. is effective against common bacteria

and virus.

2. can disinfect water with turbidity.

3. results in odourless water.

Which of the statements given above is/are

correct ?

a. 1 only

b. 1 and 2

c. 1 and 3

d. 3 only

74. In which one of the following infections,

subclinical cases do not act as carriers ?

a. Diphtheria

b. Tuberculosis

c. Typhoid

d. Hepatitis-B

75. The level of free residual chlorine

maintained continuously for swimming

pool water is :

a. 20 ppm

b. 10 ppm



c. 5 ppm

d. 1 ppm

76. The sensitivity of a diagnostic test means
its ability to call :
a. Negative to those who have disease
b. Positive to those who have disease
c. Negative to those who have no disease
d. Positive to those who have no disease
77. The does of vitamin A for a nine month
old child under child Survival and Safe
Motherhood programme is :
a. One lakh I.U.
b. Two lakh I.U.
c. Three lakh I.U.
d. Four lakh I.U.
78. A young lady presents with acute pain in
right iliac fossa. On examination, there
was tenderness and guarding. Which of the
following should not be done prior to
diagnosis ?
a. Plain X-ray abdomen
b. I/m Injection Pethidine
c. Give IV glucose
d. Put the patient nil orally
79. Which one of the following is a
contraindication for resection in
bronchogenic carcinoma ?
a. Involvement of visceral pleura
b. Consolidation of one lobe of lung
c. Hilar lymphadenopathy
d. Malignant pleural effusion
80. A 29-year old farmer presents with
gangrene foot for the last one month. He is
a chronic smoker. The most common
cause is :
a. Raynaud’s disease
b. Atheroslerosis
c. Thromboangitis obliterans
d. Myocardial Infarction
81. Which one of the following pairs is
correctly matched ?
a. Hyponatremia : Hypertonicity
b. Hypernatremia : Diabetes insipidus
c. Hyperkalemia : Normal or increased
amplitude of ‘P’ wave in ECG
d. Hypokalemia : Peaked ‘T’ wave in
ECG
82. What is the ideal time to administer
prophylactic antibiotics in a clean wound ?
a. 12 hours before operation
b. 24 hours before operation
c. During induction of anaesthesia
d. At the end of the operation
83. Consider the following processes :
1. Removal of the fibrocartilage at the
fractured site
2. Immobilisation of the fractured site
3. Cancellous bone grafting
The Non-Union of a fracture is treated by
which of the above ?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
84. The best modality to diagnose carcinoma
prostate is :
a. CECT
b. MRI with endorectal coils
c. PET scan
d. TRUS with guided biopsy
85. Which one of the following is not a
criterion for inoperability in gastric
cancer?
a. Ascites
b. Liver metastasis
c. Virchow’s node
d. Invasion of transverse colon
86. In children, best modelling is seen in
fracture with :
a. Angulation in diaphysis
b. Angulation in metaphysic
c. Rotation in diaphysis
d. Rotation in metaphysis
87. The most common solid organ injured in
blunt trauma abdomen is :
a. Liver
b. Spleen
c. Kidney
d. Adrenals
88. In a newborn, the spinal cord ends at the
level of :
a. Upper border of first lumbar vertebra
b. Lower border of first lumber vertebra
c. Upper border of third lumbar vertebra
d. Lower border of fourth lumbar
vertebra
89. The parafollicular cells of thyroid gland
develop from :
a. Second pharyngeal pouch
b. Second pharyngeal arch
c. Ultimobranchial body
d. Mandibular arch
9 of 11
90. The foetal lungs can provide adequate gas
exchange from :
a. 24 weeks
b. 26 weeks
c. 28 weeks
d. 30 weeks

91. Which one of the following statements
regarding parotid gland is not correct ?
a. It is mainly a serous gland.
b. Mucous acini are rare.
c. It has myoepithelial cells.
d. Intercalated ducts are absent.
92. The branches of the following arteries
supply the spinal cord except :
a. Vertebral
b. Superficial cervical
c. Intercostal
d. Lumbar
93. What is the number of days in which the
generation of a mature spermatozoon from
a spermatogonium occurs ?
a. 16
b. 32
c. 48
d. 64
94. Consider the following statements :
The melanocytes present in the skin
1. have dendritic processes.
2. are multinucleated cells.
3. are present in the epidermis.
4. are mesodermal in origin.
Which of the statements given above are
correct ?
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 2 and 4 only
95. Parkinson’s disease is caused by the
degeneration of which one of the
following biochemically distinct neural
pathways ?
a. Nigrostriatal adrenergic
b. Nigrostriatal dopaminergic
c. Intrastriatal cholinergic
d. Intrastriatal gabaergic
96. Consider the following statements :
The function/functions of Sertoli cells
present in the seminiferous tubules is/are
to
1. secrete androgen binding protein
(ABP) and inhibin
2. secrete MIS to inhibit Mullerian duct
system
3. convert androgen to estrogen
4. form blood-testicular-barrier to protect
sperms
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct ?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1, 2, 3 and 4
d. 4 only
97. The firing rate of Ia fibres on reducing the
stretch on muscle spindle
a. Bears no correlation
b. Decreases
c. Increases
d. Decreases after an initial increase
98. Consider the following events in the
generation of receptor potential in rods
when the light stimulates it :
1. Activation of transducin
2. Activation of rhodopsin
3. Closure of Na+ channels
4. Hyperpolarization
What is the correct sequence of the above
events ?
a. 1-3-2-4
b. 2-1-3-4
c. 1-2-3-4
d. 2-3-1-4
99. Consider the following :
1. Sinoatrial node
2. Atrioventricular node
3. Base of the heart
4. Apex of the heart
Regarding the above, what is the correct
sequence in which cardiac impulse spreads
in a normal healthy individual ?
a. 1, 2, 4, 3, 5
b. 1, 4, 2, 5, 3
c. 1, 2, 4, 5, 3
d. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
100. Which one of the following shows a
prominent prepotential ?
a. Sinoatrail node
b. Atrail muscle cells
c. Purkinje’s system
d. Ventricular muscle cells
101. The following are observed after
parasympathetic stimulation except :
a. Depression of ventricular myocardium
10 of 11
b. Inhibition of adenylyl cyclase through
nicotine receptors
c. Inhibition of norepinephrine release
d. Decrease in the peak left ventricular
pressure
102. The times vital capacity, FEV1 is used to
evaluate the :
a. Compliance of the lung
b. Pulmonary blood flow resistance
c. Flow-resistance properties of lung
d. Elastic properties of lung
103. Consider the following statements :
The symports in the luminal surface of the
epithelial cells of the proximal tubule are
involved in the reabsorption of :
1. sodium ions and glucose
2. sodium and hydrogen ions
3. water
4. Sodium ions and amino acid
Which of the statements given above are
correct ?
a. 1 and 4
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 2, 3 and 4
104. A deficiency of pulmonary surfactant
would decrease the :
a. Lung compliance
b. Work of breathing
c. Intrapleural pressure to achieve a given
tidal volume
d. Surface tension in the alveoli
105. Which one of the following is not required
for micellar formation ?
a. Bile salts
b. Monoglyceride
c. Acetoacetate
d. Phospholipid

106. Which one of the following primary
dietary lipid components does not require
the assistance of a micelle for absorption
by the intestinal mucosa ?
a. Free cholesterol
b. Short and medium chain length fatty
acids
c. 2, monoacyl glycerol
d. Long chain length fatty acids
107. Consider the following statements
regarding meningococcal disease :
1. Fulminant meningococcemia carries a
mortality of 40—60%
2. chronic meningococcemia is associated
with arthritis in two-third of cases.
3. One has to wait for the CSF report
before starting the therapy in a patient
with meningitis.
4. Three-fourth of patients have petechial
cutaneous
Which of the statements given above are
correct ?
a. 1 and 4 only
b. 1 and 3
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 3 and 4


108. Which one of the following is not included
as a criterion (American College of
Rheumatology) for the diagnosis of
rheumatoid arthritis ?
a. Morning stiffness lasting more than
one hour
b. Symmetric arthritis
c. Arthritis of hand joints
d. Positive HLA-DR4 type
109. Regarding lepromatous leprosy, which one
of the following statemtns is not correct ?
a. Skin lesions are usually widespread.
b. Lepromatous bacilli are detected from
skin lesion.
c. Dapsone is a drug of choice in its
treatment.
d. Hypaesthesia from neuropathy is an
early sign.
110. Regarding diabetes mellitus, consider the
following statements :
1. Hyperosmolar non-ketotic coma is
seen frequently in insulin dependant
diabetes.
2. In diabetic ketoacidosis, serum
potassium may be elevated despite a
total-body potassium deficit.
3. Pseudo-hyponatraemia may be a
feature in diabetic ketoacidosis.
4. Kidney biopsy may show nodular
glomeruloscelerosis.
Which of the statements given above are
correct ?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 3 and 4 only
111. Regarding chronic pyelonephritis, which
one of the statemtns is not correct ?
11 of 11
a. Vesico-ureteric reflux is present from
an early age.
b. Most cases have underlying structural
abnormality.
c. Recurrent UTI is responsible for
pyelonephritis.
d. Renal parenchymal damage may occur
as a result of immunological reaction
to bacterial antigens.
112. Regarding Helicobacter pylori, which one
of the following statements is not correct ?
a. Gastric colonization with H. pylori has
been reported in 9095% of patients
with duodenal ulcer.
b. H. pylori resides in the mucus get
coating the epithelial cells of the
stomach.
c. H. pylori resides exclusively in the
normal duodenal mucosa.
d. Clarithromycin is a useful drug in H.
phlori eradication.
113. The features with a high mortality in a
patient with pneumonia are the following
except :
a. A positive blood culture
b. A coexisting malignancy
c. Hypoxaemia, PAO2 < 60 mm Hg
d. Blood urea nitrogen > 30 mg/dl
114. The following predispose to the
development of niacin deficiency state
except :
a. Corn based diet
b. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
c. Carcinoid syndrome
d. Hartnup’s disease
115. Consider the following symptoms :
1. Fever
2. Dyspnoea
3. Conjunctivitis
4. Oedema of face
Which of the above symptoms are
produced by migrating larvae of Ascaris in
an infected individual ?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 3 and 4
116. Consider the following findings :
1. Lymhocytic pleocytosis
2. Normal glucose level
3. Normal or mildly elevated protein
level
4. Polymerase Chain Reaction positivity
against enterovirus
Which of the above is/are related to CSF
findings in a patient with poliomyelitis ?
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3, only
c. 1 and 3, only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
117. Regarding coronary artery disease, which
one of the following statements is not
correct ?
a. In unstable angina, pain usually occurs
at rest.
b. Prinzmetal angina characteristically
has chest pain at rest and may awaken
the patient from sleep.
c. Exercise test is considered positive if
there is S-T segment elevation 1 mm or
more lasting longer than 0.08 second.
d. In patients with three vessel disease,
the annual expected mortality is more
than 20 per cent.
118. J receptors are located in :
a. Veins
b. Juxta-pulmonary capillary
c. Carotid body
d. Aortic body
119. Regarding the management of acute
rheumatic fever, which of the following
statements is correct ?
a. Give antibiotics for the treatment of
active Group A streptococcal infection.
b. Give antibiotics for prophylaxis
against Group A streptococci.
c. Give both those mentioned above at(a)
and (b).
d. Antibiotics have no role.
120. Consider the following statements :
Cerebellum modulates movements by
1. preventing overshoot and damping
movement.
2. inhibiting medullary motor area to
maintain body posture.
3. planning the sequential movements.
4. providing the sequential movement.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct ?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2, 3 and 4 only
c. 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4