1. Consider the following statements
Cytochrornes are small proteins that
contain a cofactor copper
Plastocyanin carries electrons on its metal
atom iron
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
2. Which one of the following is the
competitive inhibitor of succinct
dehydrogenate which participates in Krebs
cycle?
a. Malonate
b. Succinate
c. Citrate
d. Fumarate
3. A germinating mustard seed converts its
lipids into sugars by
a. TCA cycle
b. Glyoxylate cycle
c. Calvin cycle
d. Glycotate pathway
4. Consider the following compounds:
1. Pyridoxal phosphate
2. Tetrahydrofdlate
3. Thiamine pyrophosphate
4. Lipoid acid
Which of the above belong to the
coenzymes of Pyruvate dehydrogenate
complex?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
5. Consider the following statements:
1. Mycorrhizae decrease the efficiency of
plants to absorb phosphorus from the
soil
2. Only certain prokaryotes synthesize
the enzyme nitrogen’s
Which of the above statements s/are
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
6. Which one of the following is the essential
nutrient element required in the
photosynthetic oxidation of water?
a. Magnesium
b. Iron
c. Manganese
d. Molybdenum
7. Consider the following statements:
1. Cutin is a fatty acid polymer
2. Starch is composed only of glucose
residues
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
8. Which one of the following is the
causative factor of guttation?
a. Temperature
b. Sunlight
c. Osmosis
d. Root pressure
9. Consider the following plants:
1. Curcuma longa
2. Ferula asafoetida
3. Myristica fragrans
4. Smilax aristolochiaefolia
From which of the above plants are
underground parts used for obtaining
spices or products of commercial value?
a. 1 and 2
b. 3 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
10. The verbalization effect is perceived by
the
a. Leaf tip
b. Shoot apex
c. Root
d. Petiole
11. Dormancy is induced by
a. Brassins
b. Polyrnines
c. Abscises acid
d. Indoleacetic acid
12. Application of which of the following
hormones delays the onset of senescence
in detached leaves?
a. Ethylene
b. Abscises acid
c. Gibberellins
d. Cytokine
13. Caffeine, a constituent of tea and coffee is
actually
a. A polyamine
b. An oligosaccharide
c. An alkaloid
d. A lipoprotein
14. In photoperiodic induction to flowering,
what is the site of perception?
a. Partially mature leaves
b. Older leaves
c. Entire plant
d. Apical meristem
15. The enzyme nitrogen’s that fixes
atmospheric nitrogen in the root nodules of
leguminous plants comprises two subunits,
the composition of each respectively being
a. Fe - protein and Fe - Mo – protein
b. Mo - protein and Fe - Mo – protein
c. Va - protein and Fe - Mo – protein
d. Fe - protein and Fe - Va - protein
16. Abscises acid is synthesized in
a. Chloroplasts
b. Endoplasmic reticulum
c. Ribosome’s
d. Peroxisomes
17. Consider the following statements:
1. There are as many types of tRNA as
there are codons that specify amino
acids
2. Stop codons do not have tRNAs
3. All tRNAs have an amino acid
attachment site at the 3’ end consisting
of the sequence CCA
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 3 only
18. Which one of the following conditions
favors the cross pollination in papaya?
a. Dichogamy
b. Herkogarny
c. Self-sterility
d. Unisexuality
19. Consider the following fruit crops:
1. Musa
2. Malus
3. Citrus
4. Mangifera
In which of the above nuclear
polyembryony is known to occur
commonly?
a. 1,2 and 3
b. 3 only
c. 3 and 4
d. 1,2 and 4
20. Vegetative propagation in Chrysanthemum
takes place by the help of
a. Suckers
b. Stolons
c. Offsets
d. Runners
3 of 12
21. Which one of the following is an example
of the fruit type ‘Achene?
a. Cherry
b. Pineapple
c. Mustard
d. Sunflower
22. Lectin of pollen is involved in
a. Parthenogenesis
b. Pollen sterility
c. Pollen allergy
d. Self - incompatibility
23. Saprophytic self - incompatibility is
common in
a. Asteraceae
b. Liliaceae
c. Poaceae
d. Solanaceae
24. Per sperm in the seed is a
a. Persistent endosperm
b. Persistent nucleolus
c. Persistent hypostases
d. Persistent episteme
25. Plant breeders are interested in apomixes
because it
a. Improves seed – set
b. Improves seed – set
c. Yields clonal progeny
d. Shortens the life cycle
26. Match List I (Scientists) with List II (Work
related to photosynthesis) and select the
correct answer using the codes given
below the lists:
List I
A. Calvin
B. Hill
C. Liebig
D. Sachs
List II
1. Showed that organic matter was
derived from carbon dioxide and water
used in photosynthesis
2. Pointed out that the product of
photosynthesis was starch
3. Demonstrated the photolysis of water
by isolated chloroplasts
4. Traced the path of carbon in
photosynthesis
A B C D
a. 4 1 3 2
b. 2 1 3 4
c. 4 3 1 2
d. 2 3 1 4
27. In which one of the following geological
periods did the first land plants appear?
a. Precambrian
b. Permian
c. Silurian
d. Carboniferous
28. What is the evolutionary process
responsible for divergence and
convergence of characters in closely
related species?
a. Mutation
b. Character suppression
c. Isolation
d. Character displacement
29. Match List I (Plants) with List II
(Families) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the lists:
List I
A. Custard apple
B. Guava
C. Jack fruit
D. Pineapple
List II
1. Annonaceae
2. Bromeliaceae
3. Moraceae
4. Myrtaceae
A B C D
a. 2 3 4 1
b. 1 4 3 2
c. 2 4 3 1
d. 1 3 4 2
30. “Included phloem can be defined as
a. Phloem present within the secondary
xylem
4 of 12
b. Phloem present within the primary
xylem
c. Phloem present within the pith region
d. Phloem present within the cortical
region
44. Which one of the following pairs is not
correctly matched?
a. Spirogyra : Conjugation
b. Volvox : Oogamy
c. Oedogonium : Cap cell
d. Ulothrix ; Heterocyst
45. ‘Paramylon is the name of storage food
product of photosynthesis in
a. Cyanophyata
b. Euglenophyata
c. Phaeophyta
d. Rhoodophyta
46. Which one of the following gymnosperms
is devoid of arch gonium?
a. Pinus
b. Ginkgo
c. Genetum
d. Cycas
47. Which one of the bacteria is not connected
with nitrogen fixation?
a. Azotobacter
b. Nitrosomonas
c. Clostridium
d. Rhizobium
48. Consider the following statements:
1. Anthoceros has isomorphic alternation
of generations and saprophyte is green
6 of 12
2. Riccia has heteromorphy alternation of
generations and its saprophyte is non –
green
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
49. Which one of the following pairs of plants
bears sporangia with two different types of
spores?
a. Selaginella and Equisetum
b. Equisetum and Pteridium
c. Selaginella and Marselia
d. Pteriodium and Marselia
50. In Autocross, the sporangium tissue
develops from
a. Apothecium’s
b. Endothecium’s
c. Amphithecium
d. Perithecium
51. In Eusporangiate ferns, the sporangium is
derived from a group of
a. Apical meristems
b. Lateral merstems
c. Intercalary cells
d. Surface cells of sporophyll
52. Consider the following characteristic
features of plants:
1. Naked ovules
2. Double fertilization
3. Absence of tracheids
4. Haploid endosperm
Which of the above are present in the case
of gymnosperms?
a. 1 and 4
b. 1 and 3
c. 1 and 2
d. 2 and 4
53. In photosynthesis, during the operation of
PS II, the cited P680 is rapidly
photooxidised as it passes an electron
a. Carotene
b. Ferridoxin
c. Phaeophytin
d. Phycoerythrin
54. Consider the following statements:
1. PEP Carboxylase has a high specificity
for carbon dioxide and it never picks
up oxygen
2. Kranz anatomy and C4 metabolism are
found in only monocots of hot climates
and not in dicots
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
55. Uncouples such as 2, 4-Dinitrophenol have
no effect on
a. Oxidative phosphorylation
b. Photophosphorylation
c. Substrate - level phosphorylation
d. Respiratory - chain phosphorylation
56. With reference to mass selection of crop
plants, consider the following statements:
1. Mass selection has been more
commonly used for the improvement
of cross - pollinated crops than the
single plant selection
2. The purpose of mass selection is to
increase the frequency of superior
genotypes in the population
3. This method of breeding has been very
effective in improving characters
governed by many genes
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2
c. 1 and 3
d. 2 and 3
57. In the mitochondrial genome of
Neurospora crassa the genetic code UGA
means
a. Tryptophan
b. Methiorne
c. Isoleucine
d. Termination/stop codon
58. A shuttle vector is defined as
a. A plasmid capable of replicating in one
orgasm
b. A plasmid capable of accepting only
large DNA inserts
c. A plasmid incapable of replicating in
cells
d. A plasmid capable of replicating in
two different organisms
59. The replication of a single stranded viral
RNA is brought about by
a. Reverse transcriptase
b. RNA polymerase
c. DNA ligase
d. DNA primer
60. Three point test cross is used for
a. Gene transfer
b. Gene regulation
c. Gene conversion
d. Gene mapping
61. A ratio of the observed frequency of
double - crossovers to the expected
frequency of double - crossovers is known
as which one of the following?
a. Coefficient of selection
b. Coefficient of coincidence
c. Coefficient of variation
d. Coefficient of inbreeding
62. Genes that exhibit criss-cross inheritance
are
a. Dominant genes
b. Co dominant genes
c. Sex - linked genes
d. Sex - limited genes
63. Which of the following DNA sequences
are located upstream of transcription
initiation sites in E. coli?
a. Hogness box
b. Pribnow box
c. CAAT box
d. MADS box
64. The factors responsible for cytoplasm male
sterility are located in the
a. Chloroplast DNA
b. rRNA
c. Nuclear DNA
d. Mitochondrial DNA
65. C bands occur in chrornosomal regions
having
a. Pseudo - alleles
b. heterochromatin
c. Euchromatin
d. Polygene
66. Match List I (Postulates) with List II
(Scientists) and elect the correct answer
using the codes given below
List I
A. Inheritance of the acquired characters
B. Multiplication of individual species in
geometrical proportion
C. Mutation theory of evolution
List II
1. Hugo de Vries
2. Julian Huxley
3. Jean Baptiste Lamarck
A B C
a. 1 2 3
b. 2 3 1
c. 3 1 2
d. 3 2 1
67. Gene to Gene hypothesis of host -
pathogen interaction was proposed by
a. Maclintox
b. Flor
c. Zadoks
d. Agrios
68. Which one of the following is used as
biocontrol agent of soil borne pathogens?
a. Fusarium oxysporum
b. Trichoderma harzianum
c. Pythium aphanidermatum
d. Scierotium rolfsii
69. Colletotrichum infecting sugarcane
produces which of the following asexual
fruiting bodies?
a. Acervulus
b. Pycnidiurn
c. Sporodochium
d. Synnemata
8 of 12
70. Which one of the following pathogens
infect unfertilized ovary in wheat’?
a. Puccinia graminis tritici
b. Puccinia recondita
c. Usilago nuda tritici
d. Puccinia striformis
71. The first resistance (R) gene, against
Helminthosporium carborum race 1,
known as Hm - 1 gen€ was isolated from
a. Rice
b. Potato
c. Maize
d. Wheat
72. Match List (Rice diseases) with List II
(Causal organisms) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the
lists:
List I
A. Blast
B. Stern rot
C. Udbatta
D. Blight
List II
1. Ephelis oryzae
2. Xanthomonas oryzae
3. Sclerotium oryzae
4. Pyricularia oryzae
A B C D
a. 4 3 1 2
b. 2 1 3 4
c. 2 3 1 4
d. 4 1 3 2
73. The fiber of jute (Corchrus) is obtained
from the
a. Stalks of followers
b. Secondary phloem
c. Secondary xylem
d. Leaf-sheaths
74. Which one of the following plants yields
Turpentine oil?
a. Cymboopogon Citratus
b. Pinus roxburghii
c. Gentum ula
d. Operculina turpethum
75. In which of the following parts of
Himjalaya the “tree line” is at the highest
altitude?
a. Estern Himalaya
b. Kumaun Himalaya
c. Garhwal Himalaya
d. Western Himalaya
76. Consider the following statements:
1. The seeds of Zea mays would
germinate immediately after falling
from the plant if favorable conditions
of moisture, temperature and aeration
are available
2. Seed-coat dormancy is exhibited by
Cassia and Gossypium
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
77. Consider the following plants:
1. Isoetes
2. Marsilea
3. Sagittaria
4. Salvinia
Which of the above are hydrophytes?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1 and 3
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
78. In angiosperms, the wall around the
microspore tetrads is deposited with
a. Callose
b. Cellulose
c. Pectocellu lose
d. Sporopollenin
79. In Oak tree, the pollination is brought
about by
a. Bats
b. Insects
c. Squirrels
d. Wind
9 of 12
80. Which one of the following chemical ions
plays an important role in the growth of
pollen tube
a. Calcium
b. Chlorine
c. Magnesium
d. Sulphate
81. The pollen grains are usually surrounded
by an in tine layer made up of
a. Glycoprotein’s
b. Lipoproteins
c. Lipids
d. Polysaccharides
82. Antipodal cells are absent in the embryo
sac of
a. Allium
b. Fritillaria
c. Polygonum
d. Oenothera
83. The major site of lipid synthesis in most
cells is
a. Cytoplasmic ribosome’s
b. Outer membrane of mitochondria
c. Endoplasmic reticulum
d. Golgi membranes
84. Which one of the following enzymes is
subject to allotter inhibition?
a. Aconitase
b. α- ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
c. Citrate synthetase
d. Phosphofructo - kinase
85. To ensure that the transferred gene
expresses in all tissues of plant, which of
the following promoters should be used?
a. Ribulose 1, 5 - bisphosphate
carboxylase small subunit gene
b. Histone 3 gene
c. Phosphoenal pyruvate carboxylase
gene
d. Cauliflower mosaic virus, 35 S RNA
gene
86. Determination of the order of bases in a
DNA molecule making up the gene is
known as the
a. Gene probing
b. Gene splicing
c. Gene mapping
d. Gene sequencing
87. The successive nucleotides of RNA are
covalently linked through
a. Glycoside bonds
b. Hydrogen bonds
c. Phosphodiester bonds
d. Peptide bonds
88. Using tissue culture technique, the
secondary metabolite shikonine’ is
obtained from
a. Cathranthus roseus
b. Digitalis Lanata
c. Lithospermum erythrorhizon
d. Dioscorea deltoidea
89. Match List (Scientists) with List II
(Discoveries) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below
List I
A. Nilsson –Ehle and East, H
B. Meselson, M and stahl, F
C. Kornberg, A
D. Avery, D.T. Mac Lead, C.M. and
McCarty, M
List II
1. DNA as transforming principle
2. Quantitative investigative
3. Semi-conservative replication of DNA
4. Discovery of DNA polymerase
enzyme
A B C D
a. 2 3 4 1
b. 1 3 4 2
c. 2 4 3 1
d. 1 4 3 2
90. Flowers complete, actinomorphic with
gynobasic disc, sepals 5 with valvate
aestivation, petals 5 with imbricate
aestivation, stamens indefinite,
polyadeiphous, ovary superior, carpels 5 or
more, syncarpous, multilocular ovules
arranged on axile placenta ion and style
single. In which family a plant of this
description can be found?
a. Annonaceae
10 of 12
b. Magnoliaceae
c. Malvaceae
d. Rutaceae
91. In cell division, Kinetochore helps in
a. The formation synaptoriemal complex
b. Condensing the chromatin
c. Attaching chromosome with spindle
fibers
d. Cytokines is
92. In the meiotic process, metaphase I differs
significantly from metaphase II by the
a. Arrangement of chromosomes at
equatorial plane
b. Lack of centromeric division
c. Orientation towards opposite poles
d. Attachment of spindle fibers to the
centromeric positions
93. Consider the following statements:
1. Point mutation is a process by which
new alleles of a gene are produced
2. Ultraviolet rays are a strongly ionizing
radiation
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
94. A plant with four heterogonous pairs of
chromosomes having Aa, Bb, Cc, Dd is
self fertilized, the resulting genotype with
Aa Bb Cc Dd genes occur according to
which one of the following frequencies?
a. 1/16
b. 1/64
c. 1 / 256
d. 1/1024
95. In the process of a forestation to check the
desertification, which of the following
groups of plants would be best used?
a. Eucalyptus sp, Butea frondosa Ficus
religiosa
b. Delonix regia, Ziziphus sp, Tectona
grandis
c. Prossopis cineraria, Acacia nilotica,
Acacia tortilis
d. Polyalthia Longifolia Azadirachta
indica, Aihizzia lebbek
96. Which one of the following plant
communities is represented by tropical
Savanna?
a. Shorea- Terminalia –Butea
b. Juniper-Abies-Betula
c. Dipterocarpus-Tectona
d. Panicum-Andropogon-Acacia
97. In India Tropial Wet Evergreen forests are
restricted mainly to
a. Malabar coast and Assam
b. Malabar coast and Western Himalaya
c. Coromandal coast Punjab
d. Coromandal coast and Nilgiri
98. Which one of the following is commonly
found in the Alpine Zone of the Himalaya?
a. Pinus roxburghii
b. Juniperus sp
c. Quercus sp
d. Cerdrus sp
99. Which one of the following is commonly
found in the Alpine Zone of the Himalya?
a. Atropha Belladona
b. Cathranthus roseus
c. Papaver sominferum
d. Rauwolfia sepentina
100. Which one of the following is the Hotspot
widespread type of forest in India?
a. Tropical wet evergreen
b. Thorn scrub
c. Mangrove
d. Tropical dry deciduous
101. Which one of the following regions is
identified as a ‘hot spot’ of biodiversity in
the world?
a. Cental Himalayas
b. Eastern Himalayas
c. Eastern Ghats
d. Western Himalayas
102. Which one of the following is associated
with denitrification?
a. Rhizobium
b. Pseudomonas
c. Nitrobacter
d. Azotobacter
103. Coralloid roots of cycas are normally
inhabited by
a. Blue green algae
b. Green algae
c. Nitrogen fixing bacteria
d. Sulphur bacteria
104. In vitro production of disease-free plants
requires culturing of
a. Anther
b. Shoot meristem
c. Protoplast
d. Leaf tip
105. Which one of the following enzyme
combinations yields protoplasts
satisfactorily?
a. Ligninase-cellulase-lipase
b. Cellulase-lipase-hemicelulase
c. Cellulase-hemiceHulase-ligninase
d. Pectinase-cel luase-hemicellulase
106. The micro-populations within a species
population showing genetically fixed
morphological variations in response to
ecological factors are called
a. Ecotypes
b. Ecads
c. Ecophenes
d. Syntypes
107. Which one of the following groups of
algae shows characteristic photo chromatic
adaptation?
a. Brown algae
b. Green algae
c. Yellow-green algae
d. Blue-green algae
108. Which one of the following algae is
typically terrestrial in nature?
a. Lyngbya
b. Fritschiella
c. Volvox
d. Polysiphonia
109. Which one of the following species is
obtained from per carp of schizocarp fruit
marked with riles, grooves and bristles?
a. Piper longum
b. Cuminum cyminum
c. Trigonells foenum-graecum
d. Elettaria cardamomum
110. Clove (Syzygium aromaticurn) is the
a. Thin pod like capsules
b. Elongated light brown fruits
c. Dried unopened flower buds
d. Dried stigmas and top of styles
111. Which one of the following is the best
method of estimating productivity of a
submerged aquatic plant?
a. Harvest method
b. Chlorophyll content estimation
c. Dark and light bottle method
d. Leaf area index measurment
112. Assertion (A): The ratio of Net Primary
Production to Gross Primary Production in
a mature rain forest on yearly basis tends
to be very low in comparison to that of a
crop-field
Reason (A): Communities with large
baronesses or standing crops require so
much autotrophic respiration for
maintenance
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
113. Assertion (A): Necrotrophic pathogens
enter plant cells by degrading plant cell
wall polymers
Reason (R): Necrotrophic pathogens
produce a wide range of extra-cellular
enzymes.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
114. Assertion (A): A variety developed
through pure line selection is characterized
by complete phenotypic uniformity under
varying environments.
12 of 12
Reason (R): A pure line variety is
developed by self-pollination from a single
homozygous plant.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
115. Assertion (A): Once plant cells have
differentiated into specialized structures
they cannot dedifferentiate.
Reason (R): Upon differentiation cells
become complex in structure and
specialized in function.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
116. Assertion (A): DNA is found in the
cytoplasm of prokaryotes.
Reason (R): DNA is not enclosed by
nuclear membrane in a prokaryotic cell.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
117. Assertion (A): Anther culture is a popular
technique to produce haploids for breeding
programmes.
Reason (R): Haploid plants are highly
fertile.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
118. Assertion (A): Nearly all studies of
phytochrome have been made with
pigments purified from etiolated seedlings.
Reason (A): Etiolated seedlings have long
internodes.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
119. Assertion (A): The replication of DNA
starts with the formation of RNA primer of
8-10 nucleotides at a specific site on
template strand of DNA
Reason (R): Okazaki fragments of DNA
are formed by the enzyme DNA
polymerase(s).
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
120. Assertion (A): In plants tracheids are the
most efficient means of water conduction.
Reason (R): Tracheids have bordered pits.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
No comments:
Post a Comment