Medical Sciences-2004

1. Which of the following observations
support the contention that host immunity
plays a role in cancer ?
1. Increased incidence of cancer in
immuno suppressed allograft recipients
2. Increased incidence of lymphomas in
immuno-deficient persons with cancer
3. Presence of blocking antibodies in
patients with cancer
4. Presence of tumour specific antibodies
in patients with cancer
The correct observations from the above
are :
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1, 3 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 2, 3 and 4
2. Which one of the following is more useful
in determining the prognosis of a
malignant tumour ?
a. Histological grading
b. Clinical staging
c. Massive lymphatic permeation
d. Presence of tumour giant cells
3. The following malignant tumours of skin
metastasize except :
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Verrucous carcinoma
c. Basal cell carcinoma
d. Melanoma
4. Consider the following systemic
manifestations :
1. Hypercalcaemia
2. Hypoglycemia
3. Cushing’s syndrome
4. Carcinoid syndrome
Which of the above are likely to be
associated with bronchogenic carcinoma ?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 1, 3 and 4
5. Consider the following :
1. Ventricular fibrillation
2. Cardiogenic shock
3. Cardiac rupture and haemopericardium
4. ventricular aneurysm
Immediate complication of myocardial
infarction include which of the above ?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 3
6. Which one of the following is the most
common cause of sudden death during first
hour of myocardial infarction ?
a. Heart failure
b. Ventricular arrhythmias
c. Rupture of myocardium
d. Cardiac tamponade
7. The presence of Hepatitis B surface
antigen is hepatocytes can be demonstrated
by the following stain
a. Van Gieson
b. Periodic acid Schiff
c. Shikata’s orcein
d. Gomori’s methenamine silver
8. Tubercularulcers in intestine are
a. Transverse to the long axis of the
bowel
b. Along the long axis of the bowel
c. Funnel shaped
d. Solitary
9. Consider the following statemtns with
reference to tuberculous arthritis :
1. Hips or knees are commonly involved
in this disease.
2. In children, the Synovial membrane is
frequently the primary site of
involvement.
3. It results from haematogenous
dissemination.
4. In adults it results from secondary
spread from a focus in the adjacent
metaphysic or epiphysis of the bone.
Which of the statements given above are
correct ?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 2 and 4
10. Consider the following statements :
Major derangement s of immune function
in AIDS are :
1. Lymphopenia of CD-4, reversal of
CD-4 : CD-8 ratio
2. Polyclonal hyper gemmaglobulinemia
3. Decreased chemotactic activity
4. Decreased cytolysis of infected T 4
cells
Which of the statements given above are
correct ?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 1, 3 and 4
11. Consider the following statements :
Neoplasms associated with AIDS include
1. Malignant melanoma
2. Primary lymphoma of brain
3. Kaposi’s Sarcoma
4. Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma
Which of the statements given above are
correct ?
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 2, 3 and 4
12. Which one of the following
immunoglobulins take part in
immunecomplex disease of kidney ?
a. IgM
b. IgG
c. IgE
d. IgA
13. Consider the following organisms :
1. Clostridium botulinum
2. Staphylococcus aureus
3. Salmonella typhimurium
4. Shigella flexneri
Which of the above liberate enterotoxin
and cause food poisoning ?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 3
14. Consider the following statements : V.
Cholerae is classified into classical and E1
Tor biotypes on the basis of
1. sucrose fermentation
2. Voges – Proskauer reaction
3. Haemolysis of sheep RBC
4. Susceptibility to polymyxin B
Which of the statements given above are
correct ?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1 and 4
15. The causative agent of Primary Amoebic
Meningoencephalitis is
a. Endolimax nana
b. Dientamoeba fragilis
c. Naegleria fowleri
d. Entamoeba histolytica

16. Which one of the following pairs is not

correctly matched ?

(Muscle) (Action)

a. Superior rectus : Elevation and

adduction of the eye

b. Superior oblique : Depression of the

eye

c. Inferior oblique : Elevation of the eye

d. Inferior rectus : Depression and

abduction of the eye

17. Match List I (Arteries supplying blood to

the stomach) with List II(Parent stem of

the artery) and select the correct answer

using the codes :

List I

A. Left gastric

B. Right gastric

C. Left gastroepiploic

D. Right gastroepiploic

List II

1. Gastroduodenal

2. splenic

3. Common hepatic

4. Coeliac trunk

5. Short gastric

A B C D

a. 4 3 2 1

b. 4 2 1 3

c. 5 2 1 3

d. 5 3 2 1

18. Which one of the thalamic nuclear groups

is involved in Papez circuit ?

a. Anetrior

b. Medial

c. Ventral

d. Lateral

19. Which one of the following is not

histological feature of the parotid gland ?

a. Pyramidal cells

b. Basket cells

c. Intercalated ducts

d. Demilunes

20. The epithelium seen in the principal

bronchi is ciliated and is

a. Simple columnar

b. Pseudostratified columnar

c. Stratified columnar

d. cuboidal

21. Match List I (Muscle) with List II(Nerves)

and select the correct answer using the

codes given below :

List I

A. Psoas major

B. Tensor fascia lata

C. Adductor longus

D. Gluteus maximus

List II

1. Obturator nerve

2. Inferior gluteal nerve

3. Accessory obturator nerve

4. L1 and L2 nerves

5. Superior gluteal nerve

A B C D

a. 1 3 4 5

b. 4 5 1 2

c. 1 5 4 2

d. 4 3 1 5

22. Renal angle is an angle between

a. Medial border of the kidney and the

ureter

b. Medial and lateral borders of the

kidney

c. Long axis of the kidney and mid line

of the body

d. 12th rib and lateral border of

sacrospinalis muscle

23. Consider the following statements with

regard to the right coronary artery:

1. It arises from the anterior aortic sinus.

2. It forms the characteristic inverted loop

at the crux.

3. it supplies the entire right ventricle.

Which of the statements given above are

correct ?

a. 1, 2 and 3

b. 1 and 2

c. 2 and 3

d. 1 and 3

24. The Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney

belong to

a. Distal convoluted tubule

b. Proximal convoluted tubule

c. Tunica media of the afferent arteriole

d. Tunica media of the efferent arteriole

25. Match List I(Location of uterine part) with

List II (Supporting structure) and select the

correct answer using the codes :

List I

A. Upper support of uterus

B. Middle support of uterus

C. Lower support of uterus

D. Indirect support of uterus

List II

1. Urogenial diaphragm

2. Round ligament of uterus

3. Anteverted position of uterus

4. Pubo-cervical ligament

5. Vesico-cervical ligament

A B C D

a. 3 4 1 5

b. 3 1 4 5

c. 2 4 1 3

d. 2 1 4 3

26. The site of production of Aldosterone in

the suprarenal gland is from the cells of

a. Zona glomerulosa

b. Zona fasciculate

c. Zona reticularis

d. Adrenal medulla

27. Which one of the following pairs is not

correctly matched ?

a. Anterior nucleus of thalamus :

Mamillothalamic tract

b. Ventral posterior nucleus of thalamus :

medical lemniscus

c. Ventral anterior nucleus of thalamus :

Trigeminothalamc tract

d. Medial geniculate body : Inferior

brachium

28. The blood brain barrier is absent in

a. Anterior perforated substance

b. Thalamus

c. Locus caeruleus

d. Area postrema

29. In the internal ear, spiral organ of Corti is

located in the

a. Semicircular ducts

b. Cochlear duct

c. Uteicle

d. saccule

30. Which cranial nerve nucleus is not related

to medullary part of the floor of fourth

ventricle ?

a. Vestibular

b. Hypoglossal

c. Vagal

d. Abducent
31. Consider the following characteristic
features with reference to stratum basale of
epidermis :
1. Is consists of a single layer of
columnar cells
2. Tonofibrils are contained in the
cytoplasm of its columnar cells
3. New cells are produced in this layer to
replace the worn out surface cells
4. The cells are implicated in the
formation of keratin
Which of the statements given above are
correct ?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
32. The conjugated bilirubin in plasma is
predominantly elevated when there is
a. Excess production of bilirubin due to
hemolysis
b. Decreased uptake of bilirubin into
hepatic cells
c. Disturbed intracellular protein binding
of bilirubin in hepatocytes
d. Intrahepatic or extrahepatic bile duct
obstruction
33. Puromycin which inhibits protein
synthesis is a structural analog of
a. tyrosinyl-tRNA
b. aminoacyl-tRNA
c. tyrosinyl-mRNA
d. aminoacyl-mRNA
34. Which group of the following vitamins
play key roles in the citric acid cycle ?
a. Riboflavin, folic acid and pyridoxine
b. Thiamin, Vitamin B12 and Vitamin B6
c. Riboflavin, Niacin, Thiamin and
Pantothenic acid
d. Biotin, Riboflavin, Thiamin and Niacin
35. Purine deficiency state in humans is
primarily due to deficiency of
a. Folic acid
b. Vitamin B12
c. Vitamin B6
d. Vitamin A
36. The urine would become clear in patient
excreting milky urine by replacing dietary
fat with
a. Monoacyl glycerols
b. Long chain-length fatty acids
c. Poly-unsaturated fats
d. Fatty acids having less than 12 carbons
37. Hydrophobic centre of micelles in
intestinal lumen contains
a. Fatty acids, monoglycerides,
cholesterol
b. Bile salts, bilirubin, biliverdin
c. Bile salts, Creatinine, lecithin
d. Amino acids, glucose, urea
38. The infective stage of Ascaris to human
beings is
a. Freshly passed eggs
b. Rhabditiform larva
c. Filariform larva
d. Embryonated eggs
39. Consider the following statements with
reference to rheumatoid arthritis :
1. Females are affected three times more
commonly than males.
2. Presence of HLA-DR 3 allele is
associated with the development of
side effect of gold therapy.
3. characteristically there is involvement
of distal interphalangeal joints.
4. Atlanto-axial subluxation may occur
due to involvement of upper cervical
spine.
Which of the statements given above are
correct ?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1, 3 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 1, 3 and 4
40. Consider the following features with
reference to amoebic liver abscess :
1. Right lobe is most commonly involved
2. Pus contains cysts of Entamoeba
histolytica
3. Metronidazole is the drug of choice
4. Aspiration of liver abscess should
always be done
Which of the statements given above are
correct ?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 3
5 of 12
41. Consider the following statements with
reference to status epilepticus
1. Cerebrospinal fluid cells and protein
may increase
2. Fluctuating level of consciousness,
automatic behaviour are observed in
complex partial variety
3. The ictal events are rapidly recurring
with no loss of consciousness
4. Phenytoin in dosage of 20 mg/kg
intravenously is the preferred drug
Which of the statements given above are
correct ?
a. 2 and 3
b. 3 and 4
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4
42. Consider the following :
1. Autosomal dominate inheritance
2. Early onset of hyperglycemia
3. Impaired insulin secretion
4. Autosomal recessive inheritance
Which of the above are used to diagnose
MODY (Maturity Onset Diabetes in the
Young ) ?
a. 1 and 2
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 3 and 3
d. 2 and 4
43. Match List I (clinical condition ) with List
II (Urinary finding) and select the correct
answer using the codes :
List I
A. Pre-renal azotaemia
B. Ischaemic acute tubular necrosis
C. Ethylene glycol ingestion
1. Atheroemblism
List II
2. Oxalate crystals
3. Eosinophiluria
4. Muddy brown grannular casts
5. Hyaline casts
A C B D
a. 2 1 3 4
b. 2 3 1 4
c. 4 3 1 2
d. 4 1 3 2
44. Which one of the following parameters is
not used for assessing the Glasgow Coma
Scale ?
a. Motor response
b. Verbal response
c. Eye opening
d. Pupillary reflex
45. Match List I (Causative Factor) with List
II(ECG Abnormalities) and select the
correct answer using the codes :
List I
A. Digitalis effect
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Hypothermia
List II
1. Shortened Q.T. interval
2. sine wave
3. Osborn wave
4. Square root sign
A B C D
a. 3 2 1 4
b. 4 2 1 3
c. 3 1 2 4
d. 4 1 2 3

46. Which one of the following is not a feature
of lateral medullary syndrome ?
a. Involvement of hypoglossal nerve
b. Sympathetic tract involvement
c. IX and X cranial nerve involvement
d. Loss of contralateral pain and touch
sensation over trunk
47. Which one of the following is not a feature
of life threatening situation in bronchial
asthma ?
a. Central Cyanosis
b. Absence of audible wheeze
c. Bradycardia
d. PEF = 50% of expected
48. Which one of the following is not a typical
feature of petitmal seizures ?
a. Later development of tonic-clonic
seizures in 50%
b. Loss of consciousness lasting up to 10
seconds
c. Synchronous 3 per second spike and
wave activity on EEG
d. Onset at the age of 25 to 30 years
6 of 12
49. On Plain X-ray abdomen, double bubble
appearance is seen in
a. Gastric carcinoma
b. Pancreatic carcinoma
c. Duodenal ulcer
d. Duodenal atresia
50. Which cervical vertebra gets fractured in
Hangman’s fracture ?
a. First
b. Second
c. Third
d. Fourth
51. Narrowest part of male urethra is
a. Bladder neck
b. Prostatic urethra
c. Membranous urethra
d. External urethral meatus
52. The classical signs of tension
Pneumothorax are
a. Absent breath sounds, increased
tympany on ipsilateral side and
tracheal shift to contralateral side
b. Absent breath sounds, increased
tympany on contra lateral side
c. Breath sounds present, decreased
tympany on ipsilateral side with
tracheal shift to ipsilateral side
d. Absent breath sounds, absent tympany
on ipsilateral side with tracheal shift to
contralateral side
53. Post pericardiectomy syndrome is
suspected by
a. fever, Pericarditis, pleuritis two to four
weeks after operation with normal ESR
and leucocytosis
b. fever, Pericarditis, pleuritis two to four
weeks after operation, raised ESR,
leycocytosis with lymphocytic
predominance
c. fever, Pericarditis, precordial pain,
normal ESR and normal leucocyte
counts
d. no fever, Pericarditis, pleuritis two to
four weeks after operation, normal
ESR and lymphocytosis
54. Consider the following diseases :
1. Measles
2. tuberculosis
3. Malaria
4. Influenza
Cyclic trend is observed in the occurrence
of which of the above ?
a. 1 and 4
b. 2 and 4
c. 1 and 3
d. 3 and 4
55. Experimental studies are undertaken to
a. Formulate a hypothesis
b. Determine the frequency of occurrence
and distribution of disease in a
community
c. Confirm etiological hypothesis
d. Find the incidence rate of disease
56. Consider the following indicator :
1. Odds ratio
2. Incidence rate
3. relative risk
4. Attirbutable risk
The indicator which can be calculated
from Cohort Study data are :
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1 and 3
d. 2 and 4
(Q. No. 57-58) A researcher wanted to test the use
of X-ray as a diagnostic test for tuberculosis. He
made a radiologist examine the X-ray of 100
individuals whose disease status was already
known to him by other methods. He found that out
of 100 individual diagnosed to have the disease by
x-ray examination, only 90 had the disease, 10
individuals who were disease positive had been
missed by X-ray examination.
57. The sensitivity and specificity of this
radiological test respectively are
a. 90% and 90%
b. 90% and 80%
c. 80% and 10%
d. 80% and 70%
58. The prevalence of the disease is
a. 5%
b. 105
c. 15%
d. 20%
59. Which one of the following is a better
index of fertility rates ?
a. Crude birth rate
7 of 12
b. General fertility rate
c. Total fertility rate
d. Gross reproduction rate
60. Which one of the following is the most
important medical cause of maternal
mortality ?
a. Toxemia of pregnancy
b. Post partum haemorrhage
c. Obstructed labor
d. Infection

61. Match List I (Food Toxicants) with List I
(Diseases) and select the correct answer
using the codes :
List I
A. Beta Oxalyl amino Alanine
B. Sanguinarine
C. Pyrrolizidine alkaloids
D. Aflatoxins
List II
1. Epidemc dropsy
2. Hepatocellular carcinoma
3. Neuro-lathyrism
4. Endemic ascites
A B C D
a. 2 1 4 3
b. 2 4 1 3
c. 3 1 4 2
d. 3 4 1 2
62. Which one of the following diseases is
transmitted through the Mansonoides
mosquito ?
a. Filariasis
b. Japanese encephalitis
c. Malaria
d. Yellow fever
63. Match List I (Mode of Transmission) with
List II (Disease transmitted) and select the
correct answer using the codes :
List I
A. Droplet nuclei
B. Fomites
C. Unclean fingers and hands
D. Vector
List II
1. Dysentery
2. Filaria
3. Typhoid
4. Measles
A B C D
a. 2 3 1 4
b. 2 1 3 4
c. 4 3 1 2
d. 4 1 3 2
64. The carnivorous fish used for eradication
of mosquito larva in stagnated water is
a. Gambusia
b. Anabas
c. Rohu
d. Catla catla
65. A tuberculosis patient treated with INH is
likely to develop the deficiency of
a. Ascorbic acid
b. Pyridoxine
c. Riboflavin
d. Folic acid
66. Consider the following four types of
cardiovascular diseases :
1. Rheumatic heart disease
2. Ischemic heart disease
3. Hypertension
4. Congenital heart disease
In India, what is the correct order of
occurrence of the above diseases, starting
from the most frequent to the least
frequent ?
a. 1, 2, 3, 4
b. 1, 3, 2, 4
c. 3, 4, 2, 1
d. 3, 2, 4, 1
67. The type of Paralysis seen in Poliomyelitis
is
a. Acute spastic paralysis
b. Chronic progressive spastic paralysis
c. Acute flaccid paralysis
d. Chronic progressive flaccid paralysis
68. Principles of Primary Health care consists
of the following except :
a. Equitable distribution
b. Community participation
c. Inter-sectoral coordination
d. Appropriate methods of IEC
69. Which one of the following types of
diagrams can be used to find out the
relationship between 2 variables e.g.
weight and blood pressure ?
a. Scatter diagram
b. Pictogram
8 of 12
c. Bar diagram
d. Histogram
70. Consider the following conditions :
1. Heat stroke
2. Heat syncope
3. heat cramps
4. Heat exhaustion
In which of the above conditions of heat
stress the body temperature is elevated ?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. 1 and 4
71. Consider the following statements with
reference to Rabies :
1. Rabies is a rapidly fatal paralytic
infection
2. Incubation period varies from10 days
to many years
3. Natural immunity in man is not present
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
a. 1, 2, and 3
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 3
72. Assertion (A) : A disease ovary causes
pain along the posterior side so the thigh.
Reason (R) : The parental peritoneum
against which the ovary lies, is supplied by
the obturator nerve.
a. Both A and r are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
73. Assertion (A) : Light reflex is mediated
through ciliary ganglion.
Reason (R) : Edinger Westphal nucleus
issues parasympathetic impulses to the
ciliary ganglion.
a. Both A and r are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
74. Assertion (A) : Accessory splenic tissue
may be seen in lesser omentum.
Reason (R) : spleen develop in the left
layer of dorsal mesogastrium.
a. Both A and r are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
75. Assertion (A) : Jugulo digastric lymph
nodes receive lymph vessels from
posterior part of tongue.
Reason (R) : Lymph vessels from the
margins of the tongue pass through the
periosteum of mandible to reach Jugulo
digastric lymph nodes.
a. Both A and r are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true

76. Assertion (A) : In the control of an
epidemic of Poliomyelitis oral polio
vaccine (Sabin) is more effective than
parental polio vaccine (Salk).
Reason (R) : OPV produces both humoral
as well local antibodies.
a. Both A and r are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
77. Assertion (A) : In decreased systemic
arterial pressure, there is compensatory
rise in blood pressure and cardiac output.
Reason (R) : Drop in systemic blood
pressure causes increased discharge in
buffer (sino atrial) nerve.
a. Both A and r are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
78. Assertion (A) : In a child suffering from
Chicken Pox neither Measles nor BCG
vaccination should be given for at least 6
weeks.
9 of 12
Reason (R) : Chicken pox causes
immunosuppression for a short period of
time.
a. Both A and r are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
79. Assertion (a) : Non-union occurs in
trochanteric extra capsular fracture of
femur.
Reason (R) : The fracture involves the
cancelous bone of the trochanter.
a. Both A and r are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
80. Assertion (A) : In spinal shock following
spinal cord injury the bladder distends; and
overflow incontinence occurs.
Reason (R) : In spinal shock the detrusor
muscle is paralysed.
a. Both A and r are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
81. Assertion (A) : Inferior wall myocardial
infarction is sometimes associated with
Kussmaul’s sign.
Reason (R) : RV infarction is unlikely to
cause this phenomenon.
a. Both A and r are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
82. Assertion (A) : Compound fracture of the
femur heals by delayed union.
Reason (R) : cellular elements which are
required for the production of bone are
diverted towards production pus.
a. Both A and r are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
83. Assertion (A) : Fractional clearance of N is
< 1% in pre-renal ARF patients.
Reason (R) : sodium is not avidly absorbed
from glomerular filtrate in patients with
pre-renal ARF.
a. Both A and r are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
84. A 48 year old man is admitted to ICCU
with an acute inferior myocardial
infarction. Two hours later, after
admission, his blood pressure is 86/52 mm
Hg, heart rate is 40/Min. with sinus
rhythm. Which of the following would be
the most appropriate initial therapy ?
a. Immediate insertion of a temporary
trans-venous pace maker
b. I.V. atropine sulphate 0/6 mgm
c. I.V. normal saline 300 ml over 15
minutes
d. I.V Dobutamine 0.35 mg/minute.
85. In acute rheumatic fever which one of the
following is not an evidence of carditis ?
a. Cardiomegaly
b. Right sided pleural effusion
c. Electrocardiography evidence of
second degree heart block
d. Clinicla features of heart failure
86. Rapid clinical deterioration with
pneumatoceles in the X-ray chest is a
feature of
a. Pneumococcal pneumonia
b. Streptococcal pneumonia
c. Klebsiellar pneumonia
d. Staphylococcal pneumonia.
87. Which one of the following is not a feature
of acute pyelonephritis ?
a. RBC casts on urine examination
b. Leucocytosis
c. Fever with Rigor
d. Raised blood urea
88. Which one of the following is not a feature
of Type I Lepra reaction ?
10 of 12
a. Erythema nodosum leprosum (ENL)
b. Neuritis
c. Foot drop
d. New skin lesions
89. Consider the following organisms :
1. ECHO viruses.
2. Cryptococcus neoformans
3. Neisseria meningitidis
4. Listeria monocytogenes
The organisms responsible for meningitis
in the immuno compromised adult host
include which of the above ?
a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 3
d. 2, 3 and 4
90. Which type of schizophrenia is
characterized by waxy flexibility,
negativism and rigidity ?
a. Catatonic
b. Paranoid
c. Hebephrenic
d. Simple

91. Grade III duodenal injuries of less than 6
hours duration are best treated by
a. Conservative management
b. Primary laparotomy
c. Primary repair, pyloric exclusion and
gastrojejunostomy
d. Primary repair over a T-tube
92. Most common cause of bacterial
meningitis in adults is
a. Streptococcus pneumoniae
b. Hamophilus Influenzae
c. E. coli
d. Listeria monocytogenes
93. Which one of the following statemtns is
not true in regard to fracture healing ?
a. Lower limb fractures heal earlier than
those of upper limb
b. Fractures in children heal earlier than
in adults
c. Transverse fractures take longer time
to unite than spiral fractures
d. No fracture unites in less than three
weeks
94. The Lauren’s classification divides gastric
cancer into
a. Early an advanced disease
b. Intestinal and diffuse forms
c. Ulcerative and exophytic lesions
d. Proximal and distal sites
95. In a patient, in which one of the following
conditions does the lower limb lies in the
position of flexion, adduction and internal
rotation ?
a. Anterior dislocation of hip
b. Central dislocation of hip
c. Posterior dislocation of hip
d. Intertrochanteric fracture of femur
96. Match list I with List II and select the
correct answer using the codes :
List I
A. Compound fracture
B. Spiral fracture
C. Transverse fracture
D. Double oblique
List II
1. Direct violence
2. Indirect violence as a twisting fore
3. Indirect violence as a bending force
4. Butterfly segment
A B C D
a. 1 3 2 4
b. 1 2 3 4
c. 4 3 2 1
d. 4 2 3 1
97. Treatment of fractured shaft of femur in an
infant is best carried out by
a. Preliminary traction followed by
fracture brace
b. Locked nail
c. Gallow’s traction
d. Fixed traction
98. A patient aged 80 years sustains sub
capital fracture neck femur with
displacement. The best treatment option is
a. A O screws
b. Thompson prosthesis
c. Austin Moore prosthesis
d. Total hip replacement
99. Most common organism responsible for
overwhelming post-spleenectomy
infection is
a. Pneumococcus
b. Streptococcus
c. E. Coli
d. H. Influenzae
11 of 12
100. Match List I (Disease) with List II
(Treatment) and select the correct answer
using the codes :
List I
A. Duct papilloma
B. Fibroadenoma
C. Cystosarcoma phylloides
D. Paget’s disease
List II
1. Enucleation of tumour
2. Simple mastectomy
3. sub-Cutaneous mastectomy
4. Microdochectomy
A B C D
a. 2 3 1 4
b. 4 1 3 2
c. 4 3 1 2
d. 2 1 3 4
101. In patients with Thromboangitis obliterans
the disease commences in and progresses
as
a. Digital arteries and small arteries of
the foot and then proceeds to involve
the crural arteries and progresses as
skip lesions or continuous progression
b. Crural arteries and proceeds to involve
the digital arteries and small arteries of
the foot and has continuous
progression
c. The disease involves infrapopliteal
vessel only and progresses by
continuous form to involve femoral
vessels
d. Disease involves supra Popliteal
vessels and progresses by skip lesions
distally and proximally
102. Presence of peau d’orange in carcinoma
breast is staged is
a. T4a
b. T4b
c. T4c
d. T4d
103. The appendicular artery is a branch of
a. Inferior branch of Ileocolic artery
b. Superior branch of Ileocolic artery
c. Anterior caecal artery
d. Posterior caecal artery
104. The part of nephrons in kidney that
operates as counter current multiplier is
a. Procimal convoluted tubule
b. Loop of Henle
c. Distal convoluted tubule
d. Vasa recta
105. The poison rotenone is fatal due to its
effect on
a. Cytochrome b
b. NAD-linked dehydrogenase
c. Succinate dehydrogenase
d. Uncouplers

106. To which one or the following events in
the heart does the PH interval in ECG
training correspond?
a. Cardiac impulse reaching AV node
b. Cardiac impulse generation in SA node
c. Atrail depolarization and conduction
through AV node
d. Atrail depolarisation
107. Respiratory centres in the brain stem show
decreased sensitivity to P CO2 during
a. Slow-wave sleep
b. Mental concentration
c. Physical exercise
d. Voluntary hyperventilation
108. Consider the following statements :
AV Nodal delay
1. allows atrial to get filled adequately
2. allows atrial systole to be over
3. is due to less nexi between AV Nodal
fibres.
Which of the statemtns given above are
correct ?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 3
109. In a heart beating at 72 times/minute the
absolute refractor period is
a. 3 milliseconds
b. 30 milliseconds
c. 300 milliseconds
d. 3 Seconds
110. The sequence of steps in muscle relaxation
is
a. Release of Ca2+ from troponin, Ca2+
pumped back in sarcoplasmic
reticulum, cessation of interaction
between actin and myosin
b. Release of Ca2+ from troponin,
cessation of interaction between actin
and myosin, Ca2+ pumped back in
sarcoplasmic reticulum
12 of 12
c. Ca2+ pumped back in sarcoplasmic
reticulum, release of Ca2+ from
troponin, cessation of interaction
between actin and myosin
d. Cessation of interaction between actin
and myosin, release of Ca2+ from
troponin, Ca2+ pumped back in
sarcoplasmic reticulum
111. Ovulation occurs
a. immediately after LH peak
b. nine hours after LH peak
c. during early part of follicular phas
d. three hours after LH peak
112. The over-expression of a trinucleotide
repeat causes
a. Parkinson’s disease
b. Caisson’s disease
c. Addison‘s disease
d. Huntington’s disease
113. Which one of the following factors is
stimulant of both peripheral and central
chemoreceptors causing increased
ventilation?
a. A decrease in arterial oxygen content
b. An increase in arterial CO2 tension
c. A decrease in arterial O2 tension
d. An increase in arterial blood pH
114. the excitatory signals from Pontine
reticular formation are normally inhibited
by
a. vestibular nuclei
b. cerebellar nuclei
c. Medullary reticular formation
d. Basal ganglia
115. Stimulation of which one of the following
can produce sleep ?
a. Posterior hypothalamus
b. Medullary reticular formation
c. Gracile and cuneate nuclei
d. Occipital cortex
116. Match List I(Sensory Receptor) with List
II (Response elicited) and select the
correct answer using the codes :
List I
A. Muscle spindle
B. Free nerve endings
C. Gustatory receptors
D. Labyrinthine receptors
List II
1. Postural adjustment salivation
2. Muscle contraction
3. Muscle contraction
4. Withdrawl response
5. Muscle relaxation
A B C D
a. 1 4 3 2
b. 1 5 3 2
c. 3 1 2 4
d. 3 5 2 1
117. Consider the following diseases :
1. Hymenolepis nana infection
2. Endemic typhus
3. Trench fever
Which of the above is/are transmitted by
rat flea ?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 2 only
d. 1 and 3
118. Consider the following kinds of
substances:
1. Adhesion molecules
2. Chemical mediators
3. bacterial antigens
4. Toxic oxygen radicals
Which of the above determine leucocyte
adhesion and transmigration in
inflammation ?
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 3 and 4
119. Which one of the following is not a
macrophage product ?
a. Tumour necrosis factor (TNF)
b. Interleukin I
c. Bradykinin
d. Lysozyme
120. Consider the following statements :
The histologic identity of chronic
inflammation constitute
1. Infiltration of tissue by mononuclear
cells
2. Exudation of fluid in the tissue
3. Proliferation of fluid in the tissue
4. proliferation of fibroblasts
Which of the statements given above are
correct ?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4