1. In evolutionary history, in which one of
the following periods did the flowering
plants make their first appearance?
a. Certaceous of Mesozoic era
b. Pleocene of cenopzic era
c. Devonian of Paleozoic
d. Permian of Paleozoic era
2. Which one of the following classes of
compounds is most useful in comparative
studies for determining the ancestral
relationships?
a. Amino acids
b. Nucleotide sequences
c. Nucleic acids
d. Proteins
3. Consider the following statements:
Instant speciation is possible due to
1. Mutation
2. Hybridization
3. Recombination
4. Reciprocal translocation
5. Polyploidy
Which of these statements is/are correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 3 and 4
c. 5 only
d. 2 and 5
4. Plant tissues synthesize ethylene in
response to wounding and this promotes
the formation of
a. Vessel elements
b. Tracheids
c. Periderms
d. Sieve elements
5. Consider the following statements:
Lateral roots originate
1. Endogenously
2. From per cycle cells
3. Exogenously
4. From end thermal cells
Which of these statements are correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 3 and 4
c. 1 and 4
d. 2 and 3
6. Which of the following contiguous cells
lack middle lamella?
a. All epidermal cells
b. Guard and subsidiary cells
c. Subsidiary cells
d. Guard cells
7. A concentric amphivasal vascular bundle
is one which is characterized by
a. Centrally located phloem surrounded
by xylem
b. Centrally located xylem surrounded by
phloem
c. Xylen flanked by phloem on the
interior and exterior sides only
d. Phloem flanked by xylem on the
interior and exterior sides only
8. Consider the following statements with
reference to serotaxonomy:
1. The antigen components of plants
represent characteristics of taxonomic
importance.
2. Both structural and reserve proteins
can be used for the classification of
plants.
3. Proteins of the same group from
different organs are always
comparable.
Which of these statements are correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 3
9. Taxonomic significance of allopolyploids
is because
a. They show gigantism due to increase
in cell size
b. They exhibit increased physiological
vigour
c. Chromosomes tend to pair normally in
them as in diploids
d. Allopolyploids is an infra-specific
phenomenon
10. Which one of the following families is
immediately identified by the presence of
a pseudo-embryo sac?
a. Prodostemaceae
b. Poaceae
c. Boraginaceae
d. Asteraceae
11. Consider the following floral
characteristics:
1. Petals are five and free
2. Stamens are indefinite and fused in one
group
3. Gycoeciurn is bicarpellary
Which of these are the characteristics of
the family Malvaceae?
a. 1,2 and 3
b. 1 and 2
c. 1 and 3
d. 2 and 3
12. Consider the following floral
characteristics:
1. Spirally arranged floral parts on the
torus
2. Inferior ovary
3. Actinomorphic corolla
4. Stamens many
According to Hutchinson’s concept,
primitive angiosperm us flowers are
characterized by
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 4 only
c. 1 and 2
d. 1, 3 and 4
13. Which one of the following clusters of
families is identified due to the presence of
zygomorphic flowers and bicarpellary
gynoecium’s?
a. Cuscutaceae, Solanaceae, Verbenaceae
b. Malvaceae, Tiliaceae, Cucurbitaceae
c. Boraginaceae, Convolvulaceae.
Solariaceae
d. Acanthaceae, Fumariaceae, Lamiaceae
14. In a binomial system of nomenclature
when there are three words used for a
species name
a. Two words of the specific epithet are
joined/hyphen
b. First word of the specific epithet
should be eliminated
c. Whole specific epithet is to be rejected
d. Another substitute specific epithet is to
be chosen
15. With reference to botanical nomenclature,
in type method
a. Type is for the name and not for the
species
b. Type is for the species and not for the
name
c. Type is for populations not either for
names or species
d. Type is for the genus
16. When Acetabularia is in uninucleat
condition, then it is in
a. Vegetative phase
b. Reproductive phase
c. Cyst formation stage
d. Gamete formation stage
17. In the saprophyte of Bryales, archesporium
originates from
a. Endothecium
b. Endothelium
c. Amphithecium
d. Perithecium
18. Which one of the following algae is
reported to pro duce an antibiotic?
a. Nostoc
b. Ectocarpus
c. Chlamydomonas
d. Chlorella
19. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer:
List I (Name of the plant)
A. Chlamydomonas
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B. Valvax
C. Vaucheria
D. Batrachospermum
List II (Name of stage in the life cycle)
1. Plakea stage
2. Chantransia stage
3. Palmell stage
4. Gongrosira stage
A B C D
a. 3 1 4 2
b. 34 1 2
c. 2 4 1 3
d. 2 1 4 3
20. In Pinus, the haploid structures are
a. Megaspore, endosperm and embryo
b. Microspore, megaspore and endosperm
c. Megaspore, integument and root
d. Microspore, leaf and endosperm
21. Albugo resembles Vaucheria in
a. Mode of its nutrition
b. Reserve food material
c. Coenocytes thallus and development of
sex organs
d. Cell wall composition and similarity of
sex organs
22. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer:
List I (Plants)
A. Ophiologlossum
B. Notothylas
C. Sphagnum
D. Rhynia
List II (Plant groups)
1. Musci
2. Filicineae
3. Anthocerotae
4. Psilophytineae
5. Hepaticeae
A B C D
a. 1 2 5 3
b. 2 3 1 4
c. 2 3 5 4
d. 4 2 1 3
23. An alga in which five sterile vegetative
sheaths cover the oogonium is
a. Colochaete
b. Fucus
c. Chara
d. Volvox
24. Cones with out sporophylls are found in
a. Lycopodium
b. Psilotum
c. Rhynia
d. Equisetum
25. Consider the following processes:
1. O2 evolution
2. CO2 fixation
3. NADPH formation
4. Chlorophyll biosynthesis
Which of these do not occur in thylakoids?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 3 and 4
d. 2 and 4
26. Consider the following compounds:
1. Phosphoenol pyruvate
2. Malic acid
3. Pyruvic acid
4. Oxaloacetic acid
What is the correct sequence of these
intermediate compounds as they form in
C4 - dicarboxylic acid pathway following
the PEP- carboxylation reaction?
a. 1, 2, 3, 4
b. 2, 4, 3, 1
c. 4, 1, 2, 3
d. 4, 2, 3, 1
27. Consider the following:
1. Cytochrome b6
2. Cytochrome II f
3. Plastocynin
4. Plastoquinone
What is the correct sequence of these in
the photo-induced electron carriers
between PS 1 to PS 2 in photosynthesis?
a. 4, 1, 2, 3
b. 3, 4, 1, 2
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c. 1, 2, 3, 4
d. 2, 3, 4, 1
28. The total requirement of ATP and NADPH
for each molecule of CO2 fixed and
reduced in photosynthesis in the Clvin
cycle is
a. 2 ATP and 2 NADPH
b. 2 ATP and 3 NADPH
c. 3 ATP and 2 NADPH
d. 4 ATP and 3 NADPH
29. The number of manganese atoms in the
oxygen evolving complex (OEC) in
photosynthesis is
a. 2
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
30. C4 plants are divided into three subgroups
based on
a. Decarboxylation reactions
b. Oxidation reactions
c. Reduction reactions
d. Energy reactions
31. In simple osmotic systems, at-constant
temperatures, the water potential results
from the combined but opposite actions of
a. Relative humidity and pressure
potential
b. Pressure potential and saturation
vapour potential
c. Saturation vapour pressure and
osmotic potential
d. Osmotic potential and pressure
potential
32. In the presence of a competitive inhibitor,
the relation between the rate of enzyme
reaction and substrate concentration is
modified so that there is
a. Increase in Km but no change in Vmax
b. Increase in Km but decrease in Vmax
c. Increase in Vmax but no change in Km
d. Increase in Vmax but decrease in Km
33. The idea that pH gradients could provide
energy for ATP formation in chloroplasts
and mitochondria was first proposed by
a. Bassham
b. Hill
c. Mitchell
d. Thompson
34. Match List I (Compound oxidized during
Krebs cycle) with List II (Compound
formed on oxidation) and select the correct
answer
List I
A. Pyruvic acid
B. Isocitric acid
C. α-Ketoglutaric acid
D. Succinic acid
List II
1. AcetylCoA
2. Succinyl CoA
3. Oxaloacetic acid
4. Oxalosccinic acid
5. Fumaric acid
A B C D
a. 1 4 3 2
b. 2 1 3 4
c. 3 1 2 5
d. 1 4 2 5
35. Which one of the following processes
accounts for the accumulation of some
ions inside the vacuole of the cell at a
higher concentration than in the
surrounding medium?
a. Diffusion
b. Donnan equilibrium
c. Energy dependant uptake
d. Osmosis
36. Level of Zn controls the normal auxin
context through its effect on the synthesis
of
a. Tiyptophan
b. Methionjne
c. Glutamic acid
d. IAA oxidase
37. Which one of the following is a good
chelating agent used for converting iron
into absorbable form by plants growing in
nutrient solutions?
a. Dinitrophenol
b. Diphenylcaybazide
5 of 12
c. Ethylenediarmine tetraacetic acid
d. Para-aminobenzoic acid
38. The number of ribosomal binding sites
used by tRNAs during protein elongation
are
a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8
39. Consider the following statements:
A factor called ‘sigma factor’ is involved
in the transcription process during protein
synthesis. This factor
1. interacts with the core enzyme RNApolymerase
and forms the complete
active enzyme
2. Recognizes the start signal on DNA
and directs the binding of the enzyme
to the promoter region
3. Along with the RNA factor helps RNA
to dissociate from RNA-polymerase
and thus helps to terminate
transcription
Which of these statements are correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 1,2 and 3
40. Zea mays is a
a. Day-neutral plant
b. Long-day plant
c. Short-day plant
d. Long-short-day plant
41. In the studies of photosynthetic pathways
after the chromatographic separation of
radioactively labeled sugars, they could be
detected by placing the paper
chromatogram in contact with a sheet of
X-ray film. This technique is called
a. Autoradiography
b. Chromatography
c. Reverse-flap technique
d. Spectrophotometer
42. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer:
List I (Plant)
A. Cassava
B. Clusterbean
C. Radish .
D. Turnip
List II
1. Brassica rapa
2. Cyamopsis tetragonoloba
3. Manihot esculena
4. Raphanus sativus
A B C D
a. 1 2 4 3
b. 3 2 4 1
c. 1 4 2 3
d. 3 4 2 1
43. With reference to Zea mays, consider the
following embryonic tissues
1. Pericarp
2. Endosperm
3. Aleurone
Which of these structures is/are triploid?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 3
d. 2 and 3
44. In some flowering plants, the requirement
of long day length or low temperature
treatment for flowering can be effectively
substituted by
a. Morphactins
b. Coumarins
c. 2, 4-D
d. Gibberellins
45. Under water stress, plants increase the
synthesis of
a. Gibberellic acid
b. Cytokinin
c. Auxins
d. Abscisic acid
46. Plants normally flowering in winter remain
vegetative in summer even if they are kept
at winter temperature because
a. Transpiration rate becomes very high
during summer
b. Laws of limiting factors are applicable
in summer
c. Pollination fails to take place in
summer
d. They do not get the required daylength
during summer
47. In nature, the orchid seeds germinate only
in association With
a. Myxomycetes
b. Mycorrhiza
c. Blue green algae
d. Actinomycetes
48. In vivipary type of seed germination, the
seeds undergo
a. Twelve months of resting period
b. Six months of resting period
c. Three months of resting period
d. No resting period
49. The outgrowth of the funicle is called
a. Aril
b. Caruncle
c. Micropyle
d. Strophiole
50. Cycas is vegetative propagated by
a. Corms
b. Bulbs
c. Bulbils
d. Suckers
51. Pollinium is present in
a. Ficus
b. Litchi
c. Yucca
d. Calotropis
52. The exine of mature pollen grain is
composed chiefly
a. Lipids
b. Cellulose
c. Pectocellulose
d. Sporopollenin
53. During fertilization, the pollen tube
discharges its consents in the vicinity of
the
a. Central cell
b. Egg
c. Micropyle
d. Synergid
54. Pollination in Ficus is
a. Anemophilous
b. Entomophilous
c. Ornithophilous
d. Cheiropterophilous
55. Gynobasic style is characteristic feature of
the family
a. Rosaceae
b. Orchidaceae
c. Labiatae
d. Cucurbitaceae
56. In wheat, the first division of the zygote is
a. Transverse
b. Vertical
c. Variable
d. Oblique
57. Consider the following families:
1. Orchidaceae
2. Potostmaceae
3. Trapaceae
In which of these the endosperm, a
nutritive tissue, is NOT formed?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 2 and 3
d. 1,2 and 3
58. Small amount of nucleolus persisting in
the mature seed is known as
a. Caruncle
b. Endosperm
c. Perisperm
d. Ruminate endosperm
59. Polyembryony is a predominant feature in
the species of
a. Mangifera
b. Opunitia
c. Eugenia
d. Citrus
60. Dormancy caused by seed coat
impermeability to water and gases can be
broken by
a. Stratification
b. Scarification
c. Low temperature
d. Abscises acid
61. In gametophyte self-incompatibility (GSI),
rejection reaction takes place in
a. Stigma
b. Style
c. Ovary
d. Embryo sac
62. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer:
List I (Name of Institute)
A. International Plant Genetic Resources
Institute
B. International Rice Research Institute
C. International Wheat and Maize
Improvement Centre
List II (Place where located)
1. Italy
2. Mexico
3. Philippines
A B C
a. 1 2 3
b. 2 1 3
c. 1 3 2
d. 3 2 1
63. Selectable marker that provides resistance
to the antibiotic kanamycin is
a. Gentamycin acetyltransferase
b. Hygromycin phosphotransferase (hpt)
c. Streptomycin phosphotransferase
d. Neomycin phosphotransferase (npt 11)
64. Satellite DNA consists of
a. Extra chromosomal DNA
b. Shorter repetitive nucleotide sequences
c. Ribosomal RNA genes
d. Single gene regions
65. Certain yeast mutants have petite’
mitochondria, and they obviously lack
a. Ability to generate alcohol from
glucose
b. Capacity to synthesize fats
c. Ability to form ATP by oxidative
phosphorylation
d. Enzyme which phosphorylates glucose
66. In plant cell walls, the tensile strength of
the walls is provided by
a. Cellulose
b. Lignin
c. Pectin
d. Extensin
67. Among angiosperm plants, the lowest
chromosome & number is found in
a. Haplopappus gracilis
b. Crepis capillaris
c. Arabidopsis thaliana
d. Oenothera lamarckiana
68. Triticum aestivum, a common wheat is
a. Autopolyploid
b. Auto diploid
c. Allotetraploid
d. Allohexaploid
69. Mutations which do not cause any
functional change in the protein are called
as
a. Non-sense mutations
b. Mis-sense mutations
c. Backward mutations
d. Silent mutations
70. A change in DNA that creates UAA codon
at a site previously occupied by another
codon, would result in one of the
following mutations:
a. Amber
b. Ochre
c. Opal
d. Polar
71. pBR 322 which is frequently used as a
vector for cloning gene in E. coli is
a. An original bacterial plasmid
b. A modified bacterial plasmid
c. A viral genome
d. A transposon
72. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer:
List I (Enzymes)
A. Terminal transferees
B. Polynucleotide kinesis
C. Taq DNA polymerases
D. Exonucleases
List II (Characteristic Activity)
1. Stable above 90° C
2. Cleave the ends of linear DNA
3. Adds phosphate to 5’ OH end of DNA
or RNA
4. Adds a number of nucleotides to 3’ end
of DNA or RNA
5. Regulate the level of super coiling of
DNA molecule
A B C D
a. 5 4 1 2
b. 4 3 1 2
c. 3 4 5 1
d. 4 3 2 1
73. Genes containing introns are called
a. Silent genes
b. Split genes
c. Structural genes
d. Psudogenes
74. The coiling of chromatics during early
prophase of Mitosis is termed as
a. Somatic coiling
b. Minor coiling
c. Plectonemic coiling
d. Par anemic coiling
75. It is advantageous to use a vector having
multiple cloning sites, as it
a. Contains many copies of a cloned gene
b. Contains many copies of the same
restriction enzyme site
c. Allows flexibility in the choice of
restriction enzymes
d. Allows flexibility in the choice of
genes for cloning
76. Which one of the following statements is
NOT correct?
a. Pauling got Nobel Prize for
discovering helical structure of
proteins
b. Genetic code is the outcome of
experiments done by Khorana and
Kornberg
c. Fischer discovered presence of purine
and pyrimidine bases in nucleic acids
d. Archibald Garrod was the first to hint
that genes operate through enzymes
77. Holandric genes are located
a. Both in X and Y chromosome
b. Only in Y chromosome
c. Only in X chromosome
d. Only in autonomies
78. The phenomena of coupling and repulsion
was explained by
a. Bateson and Punnett
b. Beadle and Tatum
c. Bridges
d. Morgan
79. In Neurospora, when a single crossing
over occurs between two loci (Aa & Bb) in
the tetrad stage after chromosomal
replication, the frequency of recombinant
products in ascosporic would be
a. 25%
b. 50%
c. 75%
d. 100%
80. Unrelated alleles exhibiting their similar
gene products fully are due to
a. Pseudo-dominance
b. Co-dominance
c. Super dominance
d. Hyper-dominance
81. Which symbiotic relationship is NOT
observed between Rhodium species and
plants modulated?
a. R. Meliloti : Trigonella foenumgracum
b. R. Leguminosarum : Lens esculenta
c. R. Japonicum : Glycine max
d. R. Lupini : Cajanus cajan
82. DNA is amplified by
a. PCR technique
b. Southern Blotting technique
c. Northern Blotting technique
d. Nucleic acid hybridization technique
83. Which one of the following is NOT a
component of lactose operon in bacteria?
a. Operator
9 of 12
b. Repressor
c. Regulator
d. Structural gene
84. Which fusigenic agent below is required
for cybrid production?
a. Polyvinylpyrrolidine (PVP)
b. Diethylene glycol succinate (DEGS)
c. Polyethylene glycol (PEG)
d. Dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO)
85. Which one of the following fungi is a
biotroph?
a. Puccinia
b. Pythium
c. CVollectorichum
d. Fusarium
86. Which one of the following is used as
fnga) insecticide in Bio-control programs?
a. Trichoderma viridi
b. Phytophthora parasitica
c. Beauveria bassiana
d. Aspergillus niger
87. Which one of the following pairs is NOT
correctly matched?
a. Blackarm : Phymatoirichum
omnivoriuim
b. Root rot : Rhizoctonia solani
c. Angular leaf spot : Puccinia stakmanii
d. Wilt : Fusarium oxysporum sp.
vasinfectum
88. Which one of the following structures does
a fungus produce so that it survives for a
very long period?
a. Conidia
b. Zoosperes
c. Hyphae
d. Sclerotia
89. Mycorrhizal association controls root
affecting pathogens in plants because
a. Mychorrhizal fungi colonize the roots
and acts as a barrier during infection
b. Mychorrhizal fungi helps in
phosphorus uptake
c. Mychorrhizal fungi help during stress
and shock
d. Mychorrhizal fungi produce toxins
against pathogens
90. Match List I with List 11 and select the
correct answer:
List I (Fungicides)
A. Oxathin
B. Griseofulvin
C. Ziram
D. Elemental sulphur
List II (Mechanism of action)
1. Chelation
2. Inactivation of enzyme
3. Interference with cytoplasm membrane
4. Lysis of fungal hyphae
A B C D
a. 4 3 1 2
b. 3 4 2 1
c. 4 3 2 1
d. 3 4 1 2
91. Vincristin and Vinblastin, the chemical
substances that can cure Leukemia, are
obtained from
a. Rauwolfia sepentina
b. Catharanthus roseus
c. Witania somnifera
d. Strychnos nux-vomica
92. The chief additive of coffee is chicory.
The part of the plant used is
a. Dried roasted bark
b. Dried roasted leaves
c. Dried flowers
d. Dried roasted roots
93. Vegetable fibres are classified based on
their morphological nature and structure
into
a. Bast fibres, structural fibres and filling
fibres
b. Bast fibres, structural fibres and
surface fibres
c. Bast fibres, suriace fibres and textile
fibres
d. Bast fibres, surface fibres and brush
fibres
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94. Which plant part is utilized for extraction
of drugs from Adhatoda vasica, Aloe
barbadensis and Digitalis purpurea?
a. Flowers
b. Underground parts
c. Leaves
d. Stems
95. Which one of the following groups is
found in tropical deciduous forests?
a. Shorea : Terminalia
b. Juniperus : Abies
c. Quercus : Rhododendron
d. Capparis : Acacia
96. Sub-tropical pine forest is found in
a. Northern part of Assam
b. Hilly region of Meghalaya
c. Coastal areas in Tamil Nadu
d. Western part of Madhya Pradesh
97. Which one of the following taxa is
commonly available in the moist alpine
scrub vegetation of India?
a. Shorea
b. Rhododendron
c. Terminalia
d. Dipterocarpus
98. Which one of the following statements is
true for the evergreen trees?
a. They shed their leaves during a
particular season only
b. They do not shed their leaves
c. They shed their leaves all the year
round
d. They do not show leaf senescence
99. Which one of the following terms denotes
the southern temperate vegetation of our
country and which is represented by
extensive growth of grasses and evergreen
forests?
a. Alpine vegetation
b. Moist tropical forest
c. Sholas
d. Tundra vegetation
100. A certain place in India has (i) average
annual temperature of 27°C. (ii) Annual
rainfall between 200 and 300 cm (iii)
number of rainy days ranging from 115 to
150. Which one of the following forest
types would be found in such a place?
a. Tropical wet evergreen forest
b. Tropical dry deciduous forest
c. Himalayan temperate forest
d. Moist alpine scrub
101. Consider the following statements:
The ex-situ conservation of genetic
resources can be done through
1. Tissue culture practices
2. Maintenance of sanctuaries
3. The establishment of germ plasm
banks
4. The establishment of national parks
Which of these statements is/are correct?
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 4
c. 3 only
d. 1 and 3
102. Consider the following regions of India:
1. Eastern Himalaya
2. Eastern Ghats
3. Western Ghats
4. Western Himalaya
Which of these are designated as
biodiversity Hot spots in India?
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 4
d. 3 and 4
103. Which one of the following is the most
convenient and popular source for
isolation and culture of protoplasts?
a. Root tip
b. Shoot meristem
c. Leaf
d. Pollen
104. Which one of the following plants is
generally used as green manure?
a. Euphorbia
b. Sesbania
c. Eupatorium
d. Parhtinum
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105. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer:
List I (Names of Scientists)
A. Turesson
B. Harper
C. Lindeman
D. Raunkiaer
List II (Concept/discipline)
1. Life forms
2. Energy flow in ecosystem
3. Population biology
4. Genecology
A B C D
a. 3 4 1 2
b. 4 3 1 2
c. 3 4 2 1
d. 4 3 2 1
106. Which one of the following is an important
source of methane emission in the
atmosphere?
a. Wetlands
b. Degraded forests
c. Thermal power generators
d. Wheat fields
107. Which one of the following is the main
cause of photochemical smog?
a. Carbon dioxide acting as nuclei for
water droplet formation
b. Increase in atmosphenc carbon dioxide
concentration leading to green house
effect
c. Nitrogen oxides and hydrocarbons in
the air, exposed to ultra violet light
d. Environmental conditions favoring
excessive evaporation resulting in
smog formation in the morning
108. The term ‘Phytoremediation’ refers to the
a. Use of plants for removing pollutants
from the environment
b. Use of plants as remedies to cure
diseases
c. Use of plants for restoration of
degraded forests
d. Use of plants in the retention of soil
water
109. Among the following forest types, which
one has the highest net primary
productivity?
a. Tropical rain forest
b. Tropical dry deciduous forest
c. Subtropical forest
d. Temperate rain forest
110. When propagates are formed on the floral
branches either in addition to or in place of
flowers, the phenomenon is commonly
described as
a. Apospory
b. Diplospory
c. Parthenocarpy
d. Vegetative vivipary
111. Assertion (A): Somatic cell hybridization
is possible in distantly related species.
Reason (R): Somatic cell hybridization
overcomes the barriers in natural
fertilization.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
112. Assertion (A): Excess of nitrogen if
supplied to the plants is not beneficial to
them.
Reason (R): It reduces shoot/root ratio.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
113. Assertion (A): In a mature grain of
maize, aleuronic tissue is the only living
part of the endosperm.
Reason (R): During seed germination the
embryo draws its nutrition from the
aleuronic cells.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
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d. A is false but R is true
114. Assertion (A): In crop improvement
programmes haploids are good breeding
materials haploids are good breeding
materials.
Reason (R): Haploids can be used to
produce homozygous lines in one step.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
115. Assertion (A): Plants do not have an
immune system like animals but possess
inducible defense mechanisms effective
against diseases.
Reason (R): Only chemical treatment of
susceptible host plants induces resistance.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
116. Assertion (A): Overgrazing contributes to
endemism.
Reason (R): Overgrazing affects species
diversity.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
117. Assertion (A): Asexual reproduction
associated with marine red algae takes
place through flagellated spores.
Reason (R): Asexual reproduction
associated with marine red algae takes
place through flagellated spores.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
118. Assertion (A): infection of legume roots
by a rhizoidal species does not always
result in the development of nodules for
nitrogen fixation.
Reason (R): In addition to the nif genes, a
group of genes essential for symbiotic
nitrogen fixation, designated as fix genes,
are present in Rhizobium and these genes
must be active for nitrogen fixation.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
119. Assertion (A): The life cycle in Fucus is
hypnotic.
Reason (R): The gametophyte in Fucus is
greatly reduced.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
120. Assertion (A): In plants vessels are better
conductors than tracheas
Reason (R): Vessel elements are shorter
than trncheids.
a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
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