IAS Prelims: BOTANY-2000

1. Nucleotides are linked to one another in
mRNA by
a. Hydrogen bonds
b. Hydmphobic bonds
c. Glycoside bonds
d. Phosphodiester bonds
2. Is chromosomes are the chromosomes with
a. Identical sizes
b. Identical arms
c. Identical gene content
d. Identical shapes
3. Match List I (Distinguishing feature based
on chromosomal appearance) with List II
(Stage of meiosis) and select the correct
answer:
List I
A. Terminal zed chiasmata
B. Exchange of segments of chromatids
C. Synopsis of homologous chromosomes
D. Appearance of chiasmus
List II
1. Pachytene
2. Zygotene
3. Diakinesis
4. Leptotene
5. Diplotene
A B C D
a. 4 2 3 1
b. 3 1 2 5
c. 2 5 1 3
d. 2 4 3 1
4. Which one of the following vectors can
accommodate the largest size of DNA?
a. Plasmid
b. Cosmid
c. Lambda phage
d. Yeast artificial chromosomes
5. Which one of the following statements
about meiosis in plants is NOT correct?
a. The cytomictic channels in the
medicates of higher plants permit
passage of a number of cytoplasm
components from on cell to the other to
maintain the meiotic synchrony
b. There is a conspicuous reappearance of
a large proportion of ribosome
population during zymogene in the
meiocyte
c. During early prophase, the
chromosomes condense a clump onto
one part of nuclear envelop to
constitute the so-called synizesis stage
d. Synaptonemal complex of zymogene is
the structure responsible for
chromosomal alignment and pairing
6. Crossing of F1 heteizygous with the
homozygous recessive parent is known as
a. Test cross
b. Poly cross
c. Reciprocal process
d. Top cross
7. A diploid population having individuals
with different chromosome numbers
ranging from 2n + 3 to 2n – 3 is a
a. Polyploidy
b. Ditriploid
c. Ancuploid
d. Trainload
8. Consider the following features:
1. Population consists of interbreeding
groups of individuals
2. Population does not form the basic
unity of study in population genetics.
3. Gene frequency is the important single
index characterizing the population
Which of these are characteristic of a
Mendel Ian population?
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 1,2 and 3
9. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer:
List I
A. Recombinant DNA
B. Agro bacterium
C. Sticky ends
D. Plasmids
List II
1. Marker gene! reporter gene
2. DNA lipase
3. T-.DNA
4. Restriction enzymes
A B C D
a. 3 4 1 2
b. 3 4 2 1
c. 4 3 1 2
d. 4 3 2 1
10. Which one of the following is NOT a
PCR-based molecular marker?
a. RAPD
b. AP-PCR
c. DAF
d. RELP
11. ‘Gamma garden is used for
a. Growing plantlet produced by tissue
culture
b. Eradicating pathogens from infecting.
Plants
c. Growing genetically engineered plants
on trail basis
d. Mutation breeding for crop
improvement
12. Which one of the following enzymes is
NOT made up of polypeptides?
a. Ligase
b. Ribosome
c. Lysozyme
d. Chemotropism
13. Primary transcript processing the involves
axons originating in primary transcripts of
different genes being legated together is
a. Trans-splicing
b. Primary splicing
c. Intone-splicing
d. Exon-splicing
14. Consider the following statements:
Hybrid plants can show
1. Sterility
2. Mosaicism
3. Crossing over
4. Vigour
5. Homozygosis
Which of the above statements are correct?
a. 2,3 and 5
b. 2,4 and 5
c. 1,2 and 4
d. 1,3 and 4
15. Which one of the following condition/set
of conditions is essential for successful
exploitation of heterocyst?
a. High heterolysis effect
b. Male sterility
c. Male sterility and high heterocyst
d. High heterocyst and a method for
commercial production of hybrid seeds

16. The statement, “Even in the absence of a
balance between the primary evolutionary
agents, two or more alleles can be main.
tamed together in the same panmictic
population for indefinite periods of time,
refers to
a. Polymorphism
b. Heterocyst
c. Balance polymorphism
d. Geographic polymorphism


17. Senescence is
a. A process of shedding leaves
b. An irreversible catabolic phase of the
aging process
c. A process of shedding flowers
d. A reversible metabolic phase in the
growth of the plant
18. Match list I (Structure) with list II
(Explanation / definition) and select the
correct answer:
List I
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A. Nucleoside
B. Nucleotide
C. Nucleolus
D. Nucleosome
List II
1. Deeply stained body containing rRNA
2. Portion of a DNA or RNA composed
of one deoxyribose (in DNA) or ribose
(in RNA) plus a purine or a
pyramiding
3. Short disk-shaped cylinders composed
of nucleoproteins and spaced at
roughly 100 A intervals on
chromosomes
4. Portion of DNA or 1NA composed of a
purine or pyramiding base, a
deoxyribose (in DNA) or a ribose (in
RNA) and phosphoric acid
5. A large class of chromosomal protein
probably in specific gene regulation
A B C D
a. 1 3 2 4
b. 2 1 3 5
c. 1 3 2 5
d. 2 4 3 1
19. Which one of the following is the causal
organism of trust disease of pea?
20. Match List I (Disease) with List II (causal
organism) and select the correct answer:
List I
A. Blast disease of rice
B. Leaf blight of rice
C. Smut of maize
D. Leaf rust of wheat
List II
1. Xanthomonous orzo
2. Pyricularia oiyzae
3. Puccinia graminis
4. Ustilago maydis
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 2 1 4 3
c. 2 1 3 4
d. 1 2 4 3
21. During the breakdown of cellulose in host
cell wall by fun. gal pathogens, the
sequence of cellulites enzymes involved is
a. C1 cellulose, cellobiase, C cellulose
b. cellobiase, C cellulose, C1 cellulose
c. C1 cellulose, C cellulose, cellobiase
d. C,, cellulose, cellobiase, C1 cellulose
22. From which one of the following sets of
plants is rubber obtained?
a. Hevea brasiliensis, Castilla elastica,
Landolphia thallarmii
b. Ficus elaslica, Parthenium argentatum,
Artocapus integrifolia
c. Fiats bengalensis, Ficus elastica,
Cryptostegia grand flora
d. Taraxacum, Euphorbia tirucalli,
Calotripis procera
23. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer:
List I
A. Oryza sativa
B. Curcuma longa
C. Coriandrum sativum
D. Arachis hypogea
List II
1. Coking Oil
2. Food
3. Dye
4. Spice
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A B C D
a. 2 3 1 4
b. 3 2 1 4
c. 2 3 4 1
d. 4 3 2 1
24. Which one of the following is the
botanical name of oil palm?
a. Elaeis guineensis
b. Olea europeaea
c. Cocas nucifera
d. Carthmus tintorius
25. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer:
List I
A. Rapeseed oil
B. Linseed oil
C. Candlenut oil
D. Safflower oil
List II
1. Carthamus tinctorius
2. Linum usitatissimum
3. Brassica juncea
4. Aleurites moluccana
A B C D
a. 3 2 4 1
b. 2 3 4 1
c. 3 2 1 4
d. 1 4 3 2
26. The quality of cotton is evaluated in terms
of
a. Length of fiber
b. Count
c. Weight
d. Tensile strength
27. Which one of the following groups of
spices belongs to one family?
a. Ferula asafoetida, Elettaria Cardamom,
Syzygium aromaticum
b. Trigonella foenum-graecum, Brassica
competris, Cuminum cyminum
c. Foeniculum vulgare, Ferula asafoetida,
Carum copticum
d. Syzygium aromaticum, Pimenta
officinalis, Coriandrum sativum
28. After the destruction of forests, what type
of vegetation is expected to develop?
a. Xerophytes vegetation
b. Scrub vegetation
c. Grassland vegetation
d. Evergreen vegetation
29. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer:
List I
A. Succession on rock
B. Succession on sand
C. Succession in a salt marsh
D. Succession in water
List II
1. Litho sere
2. Psammosere
3. Halo sere
4. Hydro sere
A B C D
a. 2 1 3 4
b. 1 2 4 3
c. 5 3 2 1
d. 1 2 3 4
30. Which one of the following species is the
nutritious fodder plant introduced by forest
department?
a. Cleome spinosa
b. Dodonaea viscosa
c. Stylosanthes hamata
d. Derris elliptica
31. Which one of the following is the correct
sequence of energy flower in an
ecosystem?
a. Herbivore →Carnivore → a Producer
b. Carnivore → Herbivore →
Decomposer
c. Producer → Herbivore → Carnivore
d. Decomposer → Carnivore →
Herbivore
32. The rapid extinction of species in the
tropical countries is primarily due to
a. Climatic changes
b. Increased pollution
c. Intensive agriculture
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d. Population explosion
33. Which one of the following is NOT an
endangered plant?
a. Saintapaulia ionantha
b. Hibiscus micranthus
c. Hibiscus in Solaris
d. Ariocarpus agovoides
34. Haploids are useful for
a. Production of callus
b. Production of homozygous diploids
c. Microdensitometer studies
d. Induction of giant cells
35. Mycorrhiza improve the soil structure by
a. Secreting carbonic acids
b. Releasing glycosides
c. Absorbing heavy metals
d. Adding amino acids
36. Which one of the following is a genetically
engineered antiviral protein?
a. Interferon
b. Humulin
c. Griseofulvin
d. Fumagillin
37. p DNA is used in biotechnology of
a. Protein synthesis
b. Gene splicing
c. Residual DNA
d. Recombinant DNA
38. Which one of the following pairs is NOT
correctly matched?
a. Therophytes — Surviving buds lie well
above the soil surface
b. Cryptophytes — Surviving buds lie
under soil surface
c. Hemicryptophyte Surviving buds lie
on the soil surface
d. Chemiphytes — Surviving buds lie
close or above the soil surface
39. Match list I with List H and select the
correct answer:
List I
A. Broad leaf
B. Growing squabble
C. Soil erosion
D. Silviculture
List II
1. Social forestry
2. Deforestation
3. Afforestation
4. Deciduous forest
A B C D
a. 4 1 2 3
b. 1 3 2 4
c. 3 1 2 4
d. 4 1 3 2
40. Blue boy (Methenoglobinemia) disease is
caused by the contamination of drinking
water with
a. Chloride
b. Nitrate
c. Sulphate
d. Iodide
41. Which one of the following plant species
is NOT a sand binder in the semi arid
region?
a. Salvadora indica
b. Calotropis procera
c. Saccharum munja
d. Saccharum spontaneum
42. The main reason for global warming is
a. Gradually increasing temperature of
the Sun
b. Gradually increasing temperature in
the earth core
c. Increased accumulation of CO2 in air
d. Establishment of more industries using
exothermic processes
43. Consider the following trees cultivated
extensively in India:
1. Eucalyptus spp.
2. Acacia auriculiformis
3. Lencaena lencocephala
Which of these trees have been introduced
from Australia?
a. l,2 and 3
b. l and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 1and 2
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44. An instance of an intergeneric hybrid
through protoplast fusion is
a. Arabidopsis thaliana x Brassica
campestris
b. Nicotiana tabacum x Atropa
belladonna
c. Daucus carota x Beta vulgaris
d. Datura innoxia x Plumbago zeylanica
45. Assertion (A): In plants, which flower in
short-day length, the flowering response is
primarily due to the length of the light
period.
Reason (R): The vegetative buds of SDP
are conversed into flower primordial in the
dark period.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true

46. Assertion (A): Polyspermy may bring
about fertilization of synergies or
antipodal.
Reason (R): The embryo sac is penetrated
by more than one pollen tube.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
47. Assertion (A): Any individual diploid
organism can have only two alleles.
Reason (R): The population as a whole
contains many different alleles of gene.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true


48. Assertion (A): Potato tubers do not sprout
immediately after harvest.
Reason (R): Immediately after harvest,
potato tubers contain high amount of
abscises acid which prevents sprouting.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
49. Assertion (A): The Ti plasmid of Agro
bacterium tumefactions has been
effectively used as a vector for gene
transfer in plants.
Reason (R): Ti plasmids carry sites for
insertion of foreign gene intended to be
transferred.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
50. Assertion (A): A group of three
nucleotides is the fundamental coding unit
and the code is read linearly from left to
the right end.
Reason (R): The coding ratio estimated to
be close to three is the evidence for the
triplet codes.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
51. Assertion (A): Gene mapping is possible
when crossing over occurs between
homologous chromosomes.
Reason (R): Gene mapping shows the
relative distance between genes on a
chromosome.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
52. Assertion (A): Intercellular differentiation
is the cause of intracellular differentiation.
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Reason (R): Intercellular differentiation is
the process of sequential reorganization
which redistributes differential cells and
triggers new intracellular differentiation.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
53. Assertion (A): When chromosomes are
broken by exposure to high energy
radiation such as X-ray, the resulting
broken ends exhibit a pronounced
tendency to stick to each other and fuse.
Reason (R): The broken ends resulting
from irradiation does not contain telomere.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
54. Assertion (A): Even though municipal
sewage contains a lot of biodegradable
organic substances, its discharge into
rivers makes the area uninhabitable for
fish and other vegetation.
Reason (R): Sewage water also contains
inorganic substances and pathogenic
bacteria. Which normally is not a part of
the aquatic ecosystem.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
55. Assertion (A): The recombination
frequencies and map distances do not
correspond in large linkage maps.
Reason (R): Large map distances cannot
be measured accurately due to the
occurrence of multiple crossovers.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
56. Assertion (A): All our insectivorous
plants are on the verge of extinction.
Reason (R): These plants are grown in
green houses.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
57. Assertion (A): C4 plants are “high
efficiency” photosynthesizes.
Reason (R): These plants have high levels
of photosynthesis per unit of water lost.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
58. Assertion (A): Ribosome is a biocatalyst.
Reason (R): Ribosome are pertinacious in
nature.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
59. Assertion (A): During stomata opening
starch is degraded in the guard cells to
soluble phosphorylated hexose’s which are
then converted to oxaloacetate, maltase,
etc. through glycol sis and TCA cycle.
Reason (R): As the guard cells contain
chloroplasts, the starch, that is degraded, is
synthesized from the photosynthetic
products formed in the guard cells.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
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60. Assertion (A): Oryza sativa is more
efficient in photosynthesis than Zea mays.
Reason (R): The CO2-comperisation point
of Oruza sativa is much higher than that of
Zea mays.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
61. Assertion (A): Auxins are found in large
amounts in apical meristem of shoot.
Reason (R): The shoot is exposed to
sunlight.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true
62. Stromatolites in the rocks are good
indicators of
a. Cyanobacteria
b. Chlorophyceae
c. Prion
d. Lichen
63. Cacti and Euphorbia are not easily
distinguished because they grow under
similar conditions of xenomorphic
environment and show identical
morphological adaptations. Such a type of
parallel evolution is referred to as
a. Divergent evolution
b. Convergent evolution
c. Retrogressive evolution
d. Progressive evolution
64. Given below are the processes of
speciation:
1. Reproductive isolation
2. Geographical isolation
3. Homogenous population
The correct sequence of these processes of
speciation is
a. 2,3,1
b. 2,1,3
c. 3, 1, 2
d. 3, 2, 1
65. Branched hair-like sclereids are called
a. Trichosclereids
b. Fibriforrm sclereids
c. Brachysclereids
d. Polymorphic selereids
66. Wood with vessels of equal diameters
uniformly distributed through a growth
ring is referred to as
a. Diffuse porous wood
b. Ring porous wood
c. Storied wood
d. No storied wood
67. Match List I (Types of tissues) with List II
(Examples of plants) and select the correct
answer:
List I
A. Multiple epidermis
B. Bulliform cells
C. Articulated laticifers
D. Biocallateral vascular bundles
List II
1. Oryza sp.
2. Ficus sp.
3. Cucurbita .sp.
4. Carica sp.
5. Triticum sp.
A B C D
a. 41 2 5
b. 4 1 3 2
c. 2 5 3 1
d. 2 5 4 3
68. According to the concept of waiting
meristem, the active region of shoot apex
is
a. Anneau initial
b. Meristeme medullaire
c. Promeristeme sporogene
d. Promeristeme receptaculaire
69. The genus Trapa has been excluded from
the family Onagraceae and is given the
status of a family on the basis of data
obtained from
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a. Anatomy
b. Embryology
c. Palynotogys
d. Cytology
70. Which one of the following is NOT
permissible according to the rules of
botanical nomenclature?
a. Synonym
b. Tautonym
c. Autonym
d. Basionym
71. Which one of the following is the most
effect tool in species delimitation within
the species complex?
a. Cytogenesis
b. Photochemistry
c. RNA characterization
d. DNA finger printing
72. Which one of the following ranuculaceous
genera was raised to the level of a family
on the basis of serological and
embryological characters?
a. Eranthis
b. Adonis
c. Paeonia
d. Caltha
73. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer:
List I
A. Fairy rings
B. Symbiosis
C. Salmon disease
D. Water blooms
List II
1. Chlamydomonas
2. Saprolegnia
3. Agaricus
4. Cyanobacteria
5. Lichens
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 4 3 2 1
c. 3 2 1 5
d. 3 5 2 4
74. Consider the following pairs:
1. Sporogonium opening irregularly :
Marchantia
2. Sporogonium splitting down into two
halves : Scapania
3. Sporogonium with a bulbous foot :
Anthoceros
4. Sporogonium without a long stalk-like
seta : Sphagnum
Which of the above pairs are correctly
matched?
a. 1,2,3 and 4
b. 1,2 and 4
c. 1,3 and 4
d. 2 and 3
75. The additional spermatozoids in
Micrococcus are produced due to mitosis
in
a. Tube cell
b. Sperms
c. Stalk cell
d. Body cell

76. In which one of the following species of
Lycopothum are the xylem and phloem
nearly uniformly intermixed?
a. L. cernuum
b. L. pucidulum
c. L. selago
d. L annotinum
77. Mohological1y, the spice—yielding part of
turmeric is
a. Seed
b. Root
c. Dried fruit
d. Rhizome
78. The following enzymes participate in the
initial CO2 fixation through Calvin cycle:
1. RUBISCO
2. Trios phosphate dehydrogenate
3. Phosphglyceric kinas
The correct sequence in which these
enzymes participation in CO2 fixation is
a. 1,3,2
b. 2,3,1
c. 1,2,3
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d. 3,2,1
79. C4 plants are more efficient in
photosynthesis than C3 plants because of
a. Higher leaf area
b. The presence of a large number of
chloroplasts
c. The presence of a thin cuticle on the
leaf surface
d. Lower photorespiration
80. Chemosynthesis is BEST defined as
a. Synthesis of food by chemical means
b. Synthesis of a chemical compound
c. Synthesis of food with energy obtained
in a chemical reaction
d. Absorption of food material in various
parts of the body
81. Oxygen evolution takes place during
photosynthesis in green plants but not in
bacterial photosynthesis, because
a. Bacteria are prokaryotic and green
plants are eukaryotic
b. Only photo system I is present in
bacterial photosynthesis
c. Bacterial cell wall composition is
different from green plant cell wall
d. Rate of O2consumption in bacteria is
higher than that in green plants
82. UV or X-ray radiation is NOT suitable for
photosynthesis in green plants because
such a radiation
a. Is not visible
b. Is not absorbed by chlorophyll
c. Causes ionization of chlorophyll
d. Leads to an increase in rotational and
vibration energy of chlorophyll
83. Consider the following events:
1. Excitation of chlorophyll
2. light absorption
3. Transfer of electron
4. Synthesis of ATP
The correct sequence of these events in
photosynthesis is:
a. 1, 2, 4, 3
b. 2, 1, 4, 3
c. 2, 1, 3, 4
d. 1, 2, 3, 4
84. Match List I (Physiological events) with
List II (Name of plants) and select the
correct answer:
List I
A. C3 pathway of CO2 fixation
B. C4 pathway of CO2 fixation
C. CAM pathway of CO2 fixation
D. Guttation
List II
1. Bryophyllum sp.
2. Zea mays
3. Triticum aestivum
4. Lycopeticon
5. Esculentum
A B C D
a. 2 3 4 1
b. 2 3 1 4
c. 3 2 4 1
d. 3 2 1 4
85. RuBP carboxyl’s is a less efficient enzyme
for CO2 fixation in photosynthesis than
PEP carbonyls because
a. RuBP is less predominant than PEP in
a mesophyll cell
b. RuBP is a 4-carbon sugar phosphate
while PEP is a phosphorylated 3-
carbon organic acid
c. Km value of RuBP carboxyl’s for CO2
is higher than that of PEP carboxyl’s
d. the molecular weight of RuBP
carboxyl’s is larger than that of PEP
carboxyl’s
86. A copper containing protein linking
electron transfer between PS II and PS I is
a. Cytochrome a3
b. Cytochrome b
c. Plastocyanin
d. Plastoquinone
87. Which one of the following cofactors s
NOT involved in the pyruvate
dehydrogenate complex?
a. Pyridoxal phosphate
b. Thiamine Pyrophosphate
c. Lipoid acid
d. Coenzyme A
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88. The rate of respiration undergoes a sharp
rise followed by a when certain fruits
ripen. This phenomenon is known as
a. Climatic rise
b. Climatic fall
c. Climacteric rise
d. Anaerobiosis
89. The citric acid cycle
a. Contains intermediates for amino acid
synthesis
b. Generates fewer molecules of ATP
than glycol sis
c. Is an anaerobic process
d. Is the major anabolic pathway for
glucose synthesis
90. During aerobic respiration, all the ATPs
are synthesized as a result of
a. Oxidative phosphorylation
b. Oxidative and substrate level
phosphorylation
c. Substrate level phosphorylation
d. Oxidative and phosphorylation
91. Which one of the following compounds is
NOT a member of the electron transport
chain?
a. Ubiquinone
b. Cytochrome C
c. Carnitine
d. NAD
92. In the study of enzymes, a sigmoid plot of
substrate concentration [S] versus reaction
velocity [V] may indicate
a. Michaelis-Menten kinetics
b. Cooperative binding
c. Competitive inhibition
d. Noncompetitive inhibition
93. The site of enzyme modification by
phosphrorylation is the amino acid called
a. Tyrosine
b. Cysteine
c. Lysine
d. Serine
94. The smallest unit of DNA capable of
coding for the synthesis of a polypeptide is
the
a. Operon
b. Promoter
c. Cistron
d. Replicon
95. Kerbs cycle
a. Liberates a minor part of energy durin
respiration
b. is operative in photorespiration
c. Reactions are independent of oxygen
supply
d. Is a like between carbohydrate and
nitrogen metabolism
96. Which one of the following is an example
of a plant adapted to highly saline coastal
conditions?
a. Sonneratia acida
b. Anaardium occidentale
c. Taxus baccata
d. Gnetum gemon
97. The function of a repressor protein in an
operon system is to prevent protein
synthesis by binding to
a. The ribosome
b. The RNA polymerase, thus blocking
transcription
c. A specify region of the mRNA,
preventing translation to protein
d. A specific region of the operon,
preventing transcription of structural
genes
98. Which one of the following statements is
TRUE about eukaryotic cells?
a. Cycloheximide blocks elongation
during translation
b. Formulated ERNA is necessary for
initiation of translation
c. A single mRNA specifies for more
than one gene product
d. Erythromycin inhibits elongation
during translation
99. Which one of the following is NOT correct
in respect of all transfer RNAs?
a. The 5 -end is phosphorylated
b. They are single chains
c. The anticodon loop is identical
d. The 3 -end base sequence is CCA
12 of 13
100. How many high-energy phosphate bond
equivalents are utilized in the process of
activation of amino acids for protein
synthesis?
a. Four
b. Two
c. One
d. Three
101. If the fertilized egg of a plant has 40
chromosomes, the number of
chromosomes present in the pollen mother
cell is
a. 80
b. 160
c. 40
d. 60
102. Which one of the following is the correct
sequence of procedures for site-specific
somatic hybridization in plants?
a. Procuring haploid cells from the
parental species — isolation of
protoplasts by removing the cellulose
wall — protoplast fusion —
regeneration of the fused cell
b. Isolation of somatic cells — extraction
of protoplasts — protoplast fusion —
cutting of the fused cell
c. Isolation of haploid and somatic cells
extraction of their protoplasts —
regeneration — fusion of cells
d. Enzymatic isolation of haploid cells —
isolation of protoplasts fusion of
extracted protoplasts — regeneration
of the fused cell
103. Which one of the following pairs is
correctly matched?
a. Nutation : Movement due to injury
b. Traumatotropism : Movement due to
change in turgor pressure
c. Thigmotropism : Movement of tendrils
due to contact
d. Seism nasty : Movement of stem tips
of twining plants
104. Biological significance of selfincompatibility
in plant kingdom it to
a. Promote vegetative growth
b. Increase biomass
c. Promote out breeding
d. Check population
105. The upper dormant seeds of cocklebur
(Xanthium) germinate only under high
oxygen levels. The oxygen is required for
a. Degradation of inhibitors
b. Synthesis of promoters
c. Respiration
d. Photorespiration

106. In wheat and rice
a. Per carp is fused with seed coat
b. Per sperm is fused with seed coat
c. Seed coat and per carp are separate
d. Fruits are multisided
107. In gymnosperms, the endosperm is
a. Polyploidy
b. Triploid
c. Diploid
d. Haploid
108. Per sperm is present in the seeds of
a. Black pepper
b. Castor
c. Pumpkin
d. Wheat
109. Which one of the following plant species
reproduces by apomixes?
a. Nicotiana tabacum
b. Pavonia Zeytanica
c. Poa pratensis
d. Eclipta alba
110. Match List I with List H and select the
correct answer:
List I
A. Conjugation
B. Nucleic acid production
C. Transduction
D. Transformation
List II
1. Replication
2. Mutation
3. Uptake of soluble DNA
4. Bacteriophage transfer
5. Cell fusion
A B C D
13 of 13
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 5 1 4 3
c. 5 1 3 4
d. 1 4 3 2
111. When a somatic cell acts as a spore, it is
known as
a. Delusory
b. Apospory
c. Polygamy
d. Apomixis
112. The plants raised from pollen culture are
a. Diploid
b. Tetraploid
c. Haploid
d. Polyploidy
113. The embryo sac in higher plants represents
a
a. Mega sporangium
b. Mega gametophyte
c. Mega porophyte
d. Nourishing tissue
114. Which one of the following pairs is NOT
correctly matched?
a. Monothecous anther : Hibiscus
b. Diadeiphous stamens : Citrus
c. Tetradynemous stamens : Brassica
d. Pollinia : Orchis
115. When a short day plant (SD) and a long
day plant (LD), both kept under favorable
conditions for flowering, are exposed to a
short flash of red light in the middle of the
dark period.
a. Both SD and LD plants will flower
b. Both SD and LD plants will remain
vegetative
c. SD plant will remain vegetative and
LD plant will flower
d. SD plant will flower and LD plane will
remain vegetative
116. The element known to be involved in the
polarized growth of pollen tube is
a. Potassium
b. Magnesium
c. Sodium
d. Calcium
117. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer:
List I
A. Triple fusion
B. Pollination
C. Parthenocaipy
D. Syngamy
List II
1. Transference of pollen grains on the
stigma
2. Fusion of male and female gametes
3. Seedless development of fruit
4. Fusion of poplars and male gametes
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 4 1 3 2
c. 2 1 3 4
d. 4 1 2 3
118. Consider the following morphological
pollen types:
1. Uninucleate
2. Multinucleate
3. Binucleate
4. Triangulate
Which of these occur in angiosperms?
a. 1,2 and 3
b. 2 and 3
c. 1,3 and 4
d. 2,3 and 4
119. The chemical used for treating the
dormancy of seed is
a. TTC
b. G.A.
c. I.B.A.
d. Methyl red
120. Aril is present in
a. Bitter gourd
b. Cotton
c. Litchi
d. Strawberry